HR 4128 - Criminal Code Modernization and Simplification Act of 2007

BILL PAGE

HR 4128

110th CONGRESS

1st Session

H. R. 4128

To modernize, shorten, and simplify the Federal criminal code.

IN THE HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES

November 8, 2007

Mr. SENSENBRENNER introduced the following bill; which was referred to the Committee on the Judiciary

A BILL

To modernize, shorten, and simplify the Federal criminal code.

Be it enacted by the Senate and House of Representatives of the United States of America in Congress assembled,

SECTION 1. SHORT TITLE.

This Act may be cited as the `Criminal Code Modernization and Simplification Act of 2007'.

SEC. 2. REVISION OF PART I OF TITLE 18, UNITED STATES CODE.

Part I of title 18, United States Code, is to read as follows:

`PART I--GENERAL PROVISIONS AND OFFENSES

`Chapter

--Section

101

201

261

401

501

571

641

771

851

991

1251

1301

1371

1481

2501

`CHAPTER 1--DEFINITIONS

`Sec.

`1. Definitions for title.

`Sec. 1. Definitions for title

`In this title, the following definitions apply unless otherwise provided:

agency

bodily injury

`(A) a cut, abrasion, bruise, burn, or disfigurement;

`(B) physical pain;

`(C) illness;

`(D) impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental or sensory faculty; or

`(E) any other injury to the body, no matter how temporary.

child

court of the United States

crime of violence

`(A) an offense that has as an element the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the person or property of another; or

`(B) any other offense that is a felony and that, by its nature, involves a substantial risk that physical force against the person or property of another may be used in the course of committing the offense.

department

facility of interstate or foreign commerce

Federal health care offense

`(A) section 656, 792, 806, or 1141;

`(B) section 504, 651, 653, 772, 782, 801, 803, or 1017 if the violation relates to a health care benefit program.

financial institution

`(A) an institution, with deposits insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;

`(B) the Federal Reserve or a member of the Federal Reserve including any Federal Reserve Bank;

`(C) a credit union with accounts insured by the National Credit Union Administration;

`(D) a member of the Federal home loan bank system and any home loan bank;

`(E) any institution of the Farm Credit System under the Farm Credit Act of 1971;

`(F) a broker-dealer registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission pursuant to section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934;

`(G) the Securities Investor Protection Corporation;

`(H) a branch or agency of a foreign bank (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (1) and (3) of section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978); and

`(I) an organization operating under section 25 or section 25(a) of the Federal Reserve Act.

foreign commerce

foreign government

health care benefit program

interstate commerce

national of the United States

national bank

national banking association

obligation or other security of any foreign government

organization

person

whoever

petty offense

Postal Service

serious bodily injury

`(A) bodily injury which involves--

`(i) a substantial risk of death or unconsciousness;

`(ii) extreme physical pain;

`(iii) protracted and obvious disfigurement; or

`(iv) protracted loss or impairment of the function of a bodily member, organ, or mental or sensory faculty; or

`(B) conduct that, had it occurred in the special maritime or territorial jurisdiction of the United States, would have violated subchapter A of chapter 13.

special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States

`(A) The high seas, any other waters within the admiralty and maritime jurisdiction of the United States and out of the jurisdiction of any particular State, and any vessel belonging in whole or in part to the United States or any citizen thereof, or to any corporation created by or under the laws of the United States, or of any State, Territory, District, or possession thereof, when such vessel is within the admiralty and maritime jurisdiction of the United States and out of the jurisdiction of any particular State.

`(B) Any vessel registered, licensed, or enrolled under the laws of the United States, and being on a voyage upon the waters of any of the Great Lakes, or any of the waters connecting them, or upon the Saint Lawrence River where the same constitutes the International Boundary Line.

`(C) Any lands reserved or acquired for the use of the United States, and under the exclusive or concurrent jurisdiction thereof, or any place purchased or otherwise acquired by the United States by consent of the legislature of the State in which the same shall be, for the erection of a fort, magazine, arsenal, dockyard, or other needful building.

`(D) Any aircraft belonging in whole or in part to the United States, or any citizen thereof, or to any corporation created by or under the laws of the United States, or any State, Territory, district, or possession thereof, while such aircraft is in flight over the high seas, or over any other waters within the admiralty and maritime jurisdiction of the United States and out of the jurisdiction of any particular State.

`(E) Any vehicle used or designed for flight or navigation in space and on the registry of the United States pursuant to the Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, Including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies and the Convention on Registration of Objects Launched into Outer Space, while that vehicle is in flight, which is from the moment when all external doors are closed on Earth following embarkation until the moment when one such door is opened on Earth for disembarkation or in the case of a forced landing, until the competent authorities take over the responsibility for the vehicle and for persons and property aboard.

`(F) Any place outside the jurisdiction of any nation with respect to an offense by or against a national of the United States.

`(G) To the extent permitted by international law, any foreign vessel during a voyage having a scheduled departure from or arrival in the United States with respect to an offense committed by or against a national of the United States.

`(H) With respect to offenses committed by or against a national of the United States--

`(i) the premises of United States diplomatic, consular, military or other United States Government missions or entities in foreign States, including the buildings, parts of buildings, and land appurtenant or ancillary thereto or used for purposes of those missions or entities, irrespective of ownership; and

`(ii) residences in foreign States and the land appurtenant or ancillary thereto, irrespective of ownership, used for purposes of those missions or entities or used by United States personnel assigned to those missions or entities.

Nothing in clause (ii) supersedes any treaty or international agreement. Clause (ii) does not apply with respect to an offense committed by a person described in section 3261(a).

State

substantial bodily injury

`(A) a temporary but substantial disfigurement; or

`(B) a temporary but substantial loss or impairment of the function of any bodily member, organ, or mental or sensory faculty.

United States

vessel of the United States

`CHAPTER 3--CRIMINAL RESPONSIBILITY

`Sec.

`2. Principals.

`3. Accessory after the fact.

`4. Misprision of felony.

`5. Conspiracy.

`6. Attempt.

`7. Solicitation to commit a crime of violence.

`Sec. 2. Principals

`(a) GENERALLY- Whoever commits an offense against the United States or aids, abets, counsels, commands, induces, or procures its commission, is punishable as a principal.

`(b) FOR CONDUCT OF OTHERS- Whoever intentionally causes conduct by another that is an offense against the United States, is punishable as a principal for that offense.

`Sec. 3. Accessory after the fact

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, knowing that an offense against the United States has been committed, receives, relieves, comforts, or assists the offender in order to hinder or prevent his apprehension, trial, or punishment, is an accessory after the fact.

`(b) PUNISHMENT- Except as otherwise expressly provided by Act of Congress, an accessory after the fact shall be imprisoned not more than one-half the maximum term of imprisonment or (notwithstanding section 3571) fined not more than one-half the maximum fine prescribed for the punishment of the principal, or both; or if the principal is punishable by life imprisonment or death, the accessory shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`Sec. 4. Misprision of felony

`Whoever, having knowledge of the actual commission of a felony offense against the United States, conceals and does not as soon as possible make known the same to some judge or other person in civil or military authority under the United States, shall be imprisoned not more than three years.

`Sec. 5. Conspiracy

`Unless otherwise provided by law, if two or more persons conspire to commit any offense against the United States, and one or more of such persons do any act to effect the object of the conspiracy, each shall be punished for the offense which is the object of the conspiracy.

`Sec. 6. Attempt

`(a) GENERAL RULE- Unless otherwise provided by law, whoever attempts to commit an offense shall be punished as is provided for the completed offense.

`(b) EXCEPTIONS- Subsection (a) does not apply to any provision that specifically exempts itself from the application of this section.

`Sec. 7. Solicitation to commit a crime of violence

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, with intent that another person engage in a Federal offense that is a felony crime of violence and under circumstances strongly corroborative of that intent, solicits such other person to engage in that offense, shall be imprisoned not more than one-half the maximum term of imprisonment or (notwithstanding section 3571) fined not more than one-half of the maximum fine prescribed for the punishment of the crime solicited, or both; or if the crime solicited is punishable by life imprisonment or death, shall be imprisoned for not more than 20 years.

`(b) AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE- It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution under this section that, under circumstances manifesting a voluntary and complete renunciation of his criminal intent, the defendant prevented the commission of the crime solicited. A renunciation is not `voluntary and complete' if it is motivated in whole or in part by a decision to postpone the commission of the crime until another time or to substitute another victim or another but similar objective.

`(c) LIMITATION ON DEFENSES- It is not a defense to a prosecution under this section that the person solicited could not be convicted of the crime because that person lacked the state of mind required for its commission, was incompetent or irresponsible, or is immune from prosecution, or not subject to, prosecution.

`CHAPTER 5--OTHER GENERAL PROVISIONS

`Subchapter

--Sec.

`SUBCHAPTER A--DEFENSES

`Sec.

`21. Affirmative defenses.

`22. Insanity defense.

`21. Affirmative defenses

`If a provision of law provides an affirmative defense to a prosecution for an offense, the defendant must prove the elements of that defense by a preponderance of the evidence.

`Sec. 22. Insanity defense

`(a) Affirmative Defense- It is an affirmative defense to a prosecution under any Federal statute that, at the time of the commission of the acts constituting the offense, the defendant, as a result of a severe mental disease or defect, was unable to appreciate the nature and quality or the wrongfulness of his acts. Mental disease or defect does not otherwise constitute a defense.

`(b) Burden of Proof- The defendant has the burden of proving the defense of insanity by clear and convincing evidence.

`SUBCHAPTER B--GENERAL RULES PERTAINING TO CRIMINAL OFFENSES

`Sec.

`31. Non-preemption.

`Sec. 31. Non-preemption

`The existence of a Federal criminal offense does not preclude the application of a State or local law to the conduct proscribed by the offense, unless the law specifically so provides or the State or local law requires conduct constituting the Federal criminal offense.

`CHAPTER 10--VIOLENT CRIMES AGAINST PERSONS

`Subchapter

--Sec.

101

111

121

131

136

141

155

161

171

`SUBCHAPTER A--HOMICIDE

`Sec.

`101. Homicide.

`102. Federally punishable homicides.

`103. Penalties for murders punishable under section 102; attempts and conspiracies.

`104. Penalties for manslaughters punishable under section 102; attempts.

`105. Misconduct or neglect of ship officers.

`Sec. 101. Homicide

`Unless otherwise provided by Act of Congress, if a Federal law makes the killing of a human being an offense, the following categories shall apply with respect to that offense:

`(1) MURDER-

`(A) ELEMENTS OF OFFENSE- Murder is the unlawful killing of a human being with malice aforethought. Every murder perpetrated by poison, lying in wait, or any other kind of willful, deliberate, malicious, and premeditated killing; or committed in the perpetration of, or attempt to perpetrate, any arson, escape, murder, kidnapping, treason, espionage, sabotage, aggravated sexual abuse or sexual abuse, child abuse, burglary, or robbery; or perpetrated as part of a pattern or practice of assault or torture against a child or children; or perpetrated from a premeditated design unlawfully and maliciously to effect the death of any human being other than him who is killed, is murder in the first degree. Any other murder is murder in the second degree.

`(B) DEFINITIONS- In this paragraph--

`(i) the term `assault' means conduct that consists an assault as described in section 111;

`(ii) the term `child' means a child who is under the perpetrator's care or control or at least six years younger than the perpetrator;

`(iii) the term `child abuse' means intentionally causing death or serious bodily injury to a child;

`(iv) the term `pattern or practice of assault or torture' means assault or torture engaged in on at least two occasions; and

`(v) the term `torture' means conduct, whether or not committed under the color of law, that otherwise satisfies the definition of that term set forth in section 1293.

`(2) MANSLAUGHTER- Manslaughter is the unlawful killing of a human being without malice. It is of two kinds:

`(A) VOLUNTARY- Upon a sudden quarrel or heat of passion.

`(B) INVOLUNTARY- In the commission of an unlawful act not amounting to a felony, or in the commission in an unlawful manner, or without due caution and circumspection, of a lawful act which might produce death.

`Sec. 102. Federally punishable homicides

`In addition to any other homicides made punishable by law, the following are Federal offenses:

`(1) SPECIAL MARITIME AND TERRITORIAL JURISDICTION- A killing in the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States.

`(2) OFFICERS AND EMPLOYEES AND FORMER OFFICERS AND EMPLOYEES OF THE UNITED STATES- A killing of any officer or employee, or any former officer or employee, of the United States or of any agency in any branch of the United States Government (including any member of the uniformed services) while such officer or employee is engaged in or on account of the performance of official duties, or any individual assisting such an officer or employee in the performance of such duties or on account of that assistance.

`(3) FAMILY MEMBERS OF OFFICERS AND EMPLOYEES AND FORMER OFFICERS AND EMPLOYEES OF THE UNITED STATES- A killing, with the intent to impede, intimidate, or interfere with an individual described in paragraph (2) while that individual is engaged in the performance of official duties, or with intent to retaliate against such individual on account of the performance of official duties of that individual, of a member of that indvidual's family.

`(4) FOREIGN OFFICIALS, OFFICIAL GUESTS, AND INTERNATIONALLY PROTECTED PERSONS- A killing of a foreign official, official guest, or internationally protected person.

`(5) BY NATIONAL OF THE UNITED STATES ABROAD- A killing, by a national of the United States, of a national of the United States while the victim is outside the United States but within the jurisdiction of another country.

`(6) KILLINGS BY ESCAPED PRISONERS- A killing of a person by an individual who has escaped from a Federal correctional institution where the individual was confined under a sentence for a term of life imprisonment.

`(7) CONGRESSIONAL, CABINET, AND SUPREME COURT ASSASSINATION- A killing of an individual who is a Member of Congress or a Member-of-Congress-elect, a member of the executive branch of the Government who is the head, or a person nominated to be head during the pendency of such nomination, of a department listed in section 101 of title 5 or the second ranking official in such department, the Director (or a person nominated to be Director during the pendency of such nomination) or Deputy Director of Central Intelligence, or a Justice of the United States, as defined in section 451 of title 28, or a person nominated to be a Justice of the United States, during the pendency of such nomination.

`(8) PRESIDENTIAL AND PRESIDENTIAL STAFF ASSASSINATION- A killing of an individual who is--

`(A) the President of the United States, the President-elect, the Vice President, or, if there is no Vice President, the officer next in the order of succession to the Office of the President of the United States, the Vice President-elect, or any person who is acting as President under the Constitution and laws of the United States;

`(B) a major Presidential or Vice Presidential candidate (as defined in section 3056 of this title); or

`(C) a person appointed under section 105(a)(2)(A) of title 3 employed in the Executive Office of the President or appointed under section 106(a)(1)(A) of title 3 employed in the Office of the Vice President.

`(9) OF NATIONAL ABROAD- The killing of an individual outside the United States who is a national of the United States.

`(10) KILLINGS BY PRISONER- The killing of another by a person confined under a sentence of life imprisonment in a Federal correctional facility.

`Sec. 103. Penalties for murders punishable under section 102; attempts and conspiracies

`(a) MURDER- A murder that is an offense under section 102 is punishable by--

`(1) death or imprisonment for life for first degree murder; and

`(2) imprisonment for any term of years or for life for second degree murder.

`(b) ATTEMPTED MURDER-

`(1) GENERALLY- Except as provided in paragraph (2), whoever attempts to commit a murder that is an offense under section 102 shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(2) SPECIAL RULE RELATING TO CONGRESSIONAL, CABINET, AND SUPREME COURT ASSASSINATIONS AND PRESIDENTIAL AND PRESIDENTIAL STAFF ASSASSINATIONS- If the offense attempted is against an individual described in paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102 the penalty is imprisonment for any term of years or for life.

`(c) CONSPIRACY TO MURDER- If two or more persons conspire to commit an offense under section 102 and one or more of such persons do any overt act to effect the object of the conspiracy, each shall be punished by imprisonment for any term of years or for life, but in the case of a conspiracy to commit an offense against a individual described in paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102, if death results to the individual whose killing was the object of the conspiracy, the penalty is death or imprisonment for any term of years or for life.

`Sec. 104. Penalties for manslaughters punishable under section 102; attempts

`(a) PENALTY FOR MANSLAUGHTER- A manslaughter that is an offense under section 102 is punishable by--

`(1) imprisonment for not more than ten years, for voluntary manslaughter; and

`(2) imprisonment for not more than six years, for involuntary manslaughter.

`(b) ATTEMPTED MANSLAUGHTER- Whoever attempts to commit a manslaughter that would be punishable under section 102 shall be imprisoned not more than 7 years.

`Sec. 105. Misconduct or neglect of ship officers

`(a) OFFICERS- Every captain, engineer, pilot, or other person employed on any steamboat or vessel, by whose misconduct, negligence, or inattention to his duties on such vessel the life of any person is destroyed, and every owner, charterer, inspector, or other public officer, through whose fraud, neglect, connivance, misconduct, or violation of law the life of any person is destroyed, shall be imprisoned not more than ten years.

`(b) OWNERS- When the owner or charterer of any steamboat or vessel is a corporation, any executive officer of such corporation, for the time being actually charged with the control and management of the operation, equipment, or navigation of such steamboat or vessel, who has knowingly and willfully caused or allowed such fraud, neglect, connivance, misconduct, or violation of law, by which the life of any person is destroyed, shall be imprisoned not more than ten years.

`SUBCHAPTER B--ASSAULT AND RELATED OFFENSES

`Sec.

`111. Assault.

`112. Individuals federally protected from assault.

`113. Interference with Federal officers and employees.

`114. Domestic assault by an habitual offender.

`Sec. 111. Assault

`Unless otherwise provided by Act of Congress, if a Federal law prohibits an assault against an individual, the following punishments shall apply with respect to that offense:

`(1) Assault with intent to commit murder, a felony under subchapter (A) of chapter 10, or with intent to maim, disfigure, or torture, by imprisonment for not more than 20 years.

`(2) Assault with intent to commit any felony, except murder or a felony under subchapter (A) of chapter 10, by imprisonment for not more than ten years.

`(3) Assault with a dangerous weapon, with intent to do bodily harm, and without just cause or excuse, by imprisonment for not more than ten years.

`(4) Assault resulting in serious bodily injury, by imprisonment for not more than ten years.

`(5) Assault resulting in substantial bodily injury to an individual who has not attained the age of 16 years, by imprisonment for not more than 5 years.

`(6) Assault by striking, beating, or wounding, by imprisonment for not more than six months.

`(7) Simple assault, by imprisonment for not more than six months, or if the victim of the assault is an individual who has not attained the age of 16 years, by imprisonment for not more than 1 year.

`Sec. 112. Individuals federally protected from assault

`It is an offense to assault any individual whose killing is a Federal offense under section 102.

`Sec. 113. Interference with Federal officers and employees

`Whoever interferes with any officer or employee of the United States or of any agency in any branch of the United States Government (including any member of the uniformed services) while such officer or employee is engaged in or on account of the performance of official duties, or any individual assisting such an officer or employee in the performance of such duties or on account of that assistance while that person is engaged in, or on account of, the performance, official duties shall be imprisoned not more than one year.

`Sec. 114. Domestic assault by an habitual offender

`(a) In General- Any person who commits a domestic assault within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States or Indian country and who has a final conviction on at least 2 separate prior occasions in Federal, State, or Indian tribal court proceedings for offenses that would be, if subject to Federal jurisdiction--

`(1) any assault, sexual abuse, or serious violent felony against a spouse or intimate partner; or

`(2) an offense under chapter 110A,

shall be imprisoned for a term of not more than 5 years, but if substantial bodily injury results from the offense under this section, the offender shall be imprisoned for a term of not more than 10 years.

`(b) Domestic Assault Defined- In this section, the term `domestic assault' means an assault committed by a current or former spouse, parent, child, or guardian of the victim, by a person with whom the victim shares a child in common, by a person who is cohabitating with or has cohabitated with the victim as a spouse, parent, child, or guardian, or by a person similarly situated to a spouse, parent, child, or guardian of the victim.

`SUBCHAPTER C--KIDNAPPING

`Sec.

`121. Kidnapping.

`122. Ransom money.

`123. Hostage taking.

`124. International parental kidnapping.

`Sec. 121. Kidnapping

`(a) BASIC OFFENSE- Except in the case of a child by the parent thereof, whoever, as made applicable by subsection (b), kidnaps an individual shall be imprisoned any term of years or for life and, if death results to any individual, shall be punished by death or life imprisonment.

`(b) CIRCUMSTANCES REQUIRED- Subsection (a) applies if--

`(1) the victim or the victim's body is transported in interstate or foreign commerce, regardless of whether the victim was alive when transported across a State boundary if the victim was alive when the transportation began; or

`(2) the victim is an individual whose killing is a Federal offense under section 102.

`(c) PRESUMPTION- With respect to a violation of subsection (a), based on the circumstance described in subsection (b)(1), the failure to release the victim within 24 hours after the victim was kidnapped creates a rebuttable presumption that the victim has been transported in interstate or foreign commerce. However, the fact that the presumption under this section has not yet taken effect does not preclude a Federal investigation of a possible violation of this section.

`(d) CONSPIRACY PENALTY- If two or more persons conspire to violate subsection (a) and one or more of such persons do any overt act to effect the object of the conspiracy, each shall be punished by imprisonment for any term of years or for life. If the individual whose kidnapping was the object of the conspiracy is an individual listed in paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102, the death penalty may be imposed if death results.

`(e) ATTEMPTS- Whoever attempts to violate subsection (a) shall be punished by imprisonment for not more than 20 years but if the individual whose kidnapping was attempted is described in paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102, the offender shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`(f) Special Rule for Certain Offenses Involving Children- If the victim of an offense under this section is a child and the offender--

`(1) is not a child; and

`(2) is not--

`(A) a parent;

`(B) a grandparent;

`(C) a brother;

`(D) a sister;

`(E) an aunt;

`(F) an uncle; or

`(G) an individual having legal custody of the victim;

the sentence under this section for such offense shall include imprisonment for not less than 20 years.

`(g) DEFINITION FOR SECTION- As used in this section, the term `parent' does not include a person whose parental rights with respect to the victim of an offense under this section have been terminated by a final court order.

`Sec. 122. Ransom money

`(a) FEDERAL- Whoever receives, possesses, or disposes of any money or other property, or any portion thereof, which has at any time been delivered as ransom or reward in connection with a violation of section 121, knowing it to be such, shall be imprisoned not more than ten years.

`(b) STATE- Whoever transports, transmits, or transfers in interstate or foreign commerce any proceeds of a kidnapping punishable under State law by imprisonment for more than 1 year, or receives, possesses, conceals, or disposes of any such proceeds after they have crossed a State or United States boundary, knowing the proceeds to have been unlawfully obtained, shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`Sec. 123. Hostage taking

`(a) OFFENSE- Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, whoever, whether inside or outside the United States, seizes or detains and threatens to kill, to injure, or to continue to detain another person in order to compel a third person or a governmental organization to do or abstain from doing any act as an explicit or implicit condition for the release of the person detained, or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be punished by imprisonment for any term of years or for life and, if the death of any person results, shall be punished by death or life imprisonment.

`(b) EXCLUSIONS-

`(1) It is not an offense under this section if the conduct required for the offense occurred outside the United States unless--

`(A) the offender or the person seized or detained is a national of the United States;

`(B) the offender is found in the United States; or

`(C) the governmental organization sought to be compelled is the Government of the United States.

`(2) It is not an offense under this section if the conduct required for the offense occurred inside the United States, each alleged offender and each person seized or detained are nationals of the United States, and each alleged offender is found in the United States, unless the governmental organization sought to be compelled is the Government of the United States.

`Sec. 124. International parental kidnapping

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever removes a child from the United States, or attempts to do so, or retains a child (who has been in the United States) outside the United States with intent to obstruct the lawful exercise of parental rights shall be imprisoned not more than 3 years.

`(b) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `child' means a person who has not attained the age of 16 years; and

`(2) the term `parental rights', with respect to a child, means the right to physical custody of the child--

`(A) whether joint or sole (and includes visiting rights); and

`(B) whether arising by operation of law, court order, or legally binding agreement of the parties.

`(c) AFFIRMATIVE DEFENSE- It is an affirmative defense under this section that--

`(1) the defendant acted within the provisions of a valid court order granting the defendant legal custody or visitation rights and that order was obtained pursuant to the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction Act or the Uniform Child Custody Jurisdiction and Enforcement Act and was in effect at the time of the offense;

`(2) the defendant was fleeing an incidence or pattern of domestic violence; or

`(3) the defendant had physical custody of the child pursuant to a court order granting legal custody or visitation rights and failed to return the child as a result of circumstances beyond the defendant's control, and the defendant notified or made reasonable attempts to notify the other parent or lawful custodian of the child of such circumstances within 24 hours after the visitation period had expired and returned the child as soon as possible.

`(d) EFFECT ON HAGUE CONVENTION- This section does not limit The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Parental Child Abduction, done at The Hague on October 25, 1980.

`SUBCHAPTER D--THREATS AGAINST SPECIALLY PROTECTED PERSONS

`Sec.

`131. Threats against officers or employees of the United States, and other specially protected persons.

`Sec. 131. Threats against officers or employees of the United States, and other specially protected persons

`Whoever threatens to kill, kidnap, or inflict bodily harm upon--

`(1) an individual described in paragraph (2) or (3) of section 102 on account of the performance of official duties;

`(2) an individual described in paragraph (4), (7), or (8) of section 102;

`(3) a former President of the United States;

`(4) a member of the immediate family of the President, the President-elect, the Vice President, or the Vice President-elect;

`(5) a major candidate for the office of President or Vice President, or a member of the immediate family of such candidate; or

`(6) a person protected by the Secret Service under section 3056(a)(6);

shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`SUBCHAPTER E--DEFINITIONS AND GENERAL PROVISIONS FOR SUBCHAPTERS A THROUGH D

`Sec.

`136. Definitions for subchapters A through D.

`137. Special rules relating to offenses against certain types of victims.

`Sec. 136. Definitions for subchapters A through D

`Unless otherwise provided, in subchapters A through D, the following definitions apply:

`(1) The term `family' with respect to an individual, means--

`(A) a spouse, parent, brother or sister, child, or person to whom the individual stands in loco parentis; or

`(B) any other person living in the individual's household and related to the individual by blood or marriage.

`(2) The term `foreign government' means the government of a foreign country, irrespective of recognition by the United States.

`(3) The term `foreign official' means--

`(A) a Chief of State or the political equivalent, President, Vice President, Prime Minister, Ambassador, Foreign Minister, or other officer of Cabinet rank or above of a foreign government or the chief executive officer of an international organization, or any person who has previously served in such capacity, and any member of his family, while in the United States; or

`(B) any person of a foreign nationality who is duly notified to the United States as an officer or employee of a foreign government or international organization, and who is in the United States on official business, and any member of that person's family whose presence in the United States is in connection with the presence of such officer or employee.

`(4) The term `internationally protected person' means an individual who is--

`(A) a Chief of State or the political equivalent, head of government, or Foreign Minister whenever such person is in a country other than his own and any member of that individual's family accompanying that individual; or

`(B) any other representative, officer, employee, or agent of the United States Government, a foreign government, or international organization who at the time and place concerned is entitled pursuant to international law to special protection against attack upon his person, freedom, or dignity, and any member of that individual's family then forming part of his household.

`(5) The term `international organization' means a public international organization designated as such pursuant to section 1 of the International Organizations Immunities Act (22 U.S.C. 288) or a public organization created pursuant to treaty or other agreement under international law as an instrument through or by which two or more foreign governments engage in some aspect of their conduct of international affairs.

`(6) The term `official guest' means a citizen or national of a foreign country present in the United States as an official guest of the Government of the United States pursuant to designation as such by the Secretary of State.

`(7) The terms `President-elect' and `Vice President-elect' mean those persons who are the apparently successful candidates for the offices of President and Vice President, respectively, as ascertained from the result of the general elections held to determine the electors of President and Vice President under sections 1 and 2 of title 3.

`Sec. 137. Special rules relating to offenses against certain types of victims

`(a) Extraterritorial Jurisdiction-

`(1) PRESIDENTIAL AND CONGRESSIONAL VICTIMS- There is extraterritorial jurisdiction over an offense under any of subchapters A through D against a victim described in paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102.

`(2) INTERNATIONALLY PROTECTED PERSONS- There is extraterritorial jurisdiction over an offense under any of subchapters A through D the victim of which is an internationally protected person outside the United States, if--

`(A) the victim is a representative, officer, employee, or agent of the United States;

`(B) an offender is a national of the United States; or

`(C) an offender is afterwards found in the United States.

`(b) Use of Military With Respect to Certain Offenses- With respect to an offense under this chapter, or an attempt or conspiracy to commit such an offense, if an element of the offense is that the victim be individual described in paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102, a foreign official, an internationally protected person, or an official guest, the Attorney General may request assistance from any Federal, State, or local agency, including the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

`(c) SPECIAL PROVISIONS RELATING TO OFFENSES INVOLVING PRESIDENTIAL OR CONGRESSIONAL VICTIMS- With respect to an offense under paragraph (9) or (10) of section 102--

`(1) if Federal investigative or prosecutive jurisdiction is asserted, that assertion suspends the exercise of jurisdiction by a State or local authority, under any applicable State or local law, until Federal action is terminated;

`(2) the Federal Bureau of Investigation shall have investigative authority; and

`(3) in a prosecution, the Government need not prove that the defendant knew that the victim of the offense was an individual who is protected by that paragraph.

`(d) APPROVAL REQUIRED FOR PROSECUTIONS RELATING TO UNITED STATES NATIONALS KILLED OVERSEAS-

`(1) APPROVAL REQUIRED- No prosecution may be instituted against any person under section 101(a)(5) except upon the written approval of the Attorney General, the Deputy Attorney General, or an Assistant Attorney General, which function of approving prosecutions may not be delegated. No prosecution shall be approved if prosecution has been previously undertaken by a foreign country for the same conduct.

`(2) BASIS FOR APPROVAL- No prosecution shall be approved under this subsection unless the Attorney General, in consultation with the Secretary of State, determines that the conduct took place in a country in which the person is no longer present, and the country lacks the ability to lawfully secure the person's return. A determination by the Attorney General under this paragraph is not subject to judicial review.

`(e) CERTIFICATION OF TERRORISM RELATION REQUIRED FOR CERTAIN PROSECUTIONS RELATING TO KILLING OR ATTACKING NATIONALS OF THE UNITED STATES ABROAD- No prosecution for any offense described in section 102(11) or 116 shall be undertaken by the United States except on written certification of the Attorney General or the highest ranking subordinate of the Attorney General with responsibility for criminal prosecutions that, in the judgment of the certifying official, such offense was intended to coerce, intimidate, or retaliate against a government or a civilian population.

`SUBCHAPTER F--ROBBERY, EXTORTION, AND RELATED THREATS

`Sec.

`141. Robbery in special maritime and territorial jurisdiction.

`142. Robbery of personal property of United States.

`143. Bank robbery and incidental crimes.

`144. Communication of ransom demands and other threatening communications in or affecting commerce.

`145. Extortion by officers or employees of the United States.

`146. Receiving the proceeds of extortion.

`Sec. 141. Robbery in special maritime and territorial jurisdiction

`Whoever, within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, by force and violence, or by intimidation, takes or attempts to take from the person or presence of another anything of value, shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`Sec. 142. Robbery of personal property of United States

`Whoever robs or attempts to rob another of any kind or description of personal property belonging to the United States, shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`Sec. 143. Bank robbery and incidental crimes

`(a) AGGRAVATED OFFENSE- Whoever--

`(1) by force and violence, or by intimidation, takes, or attempts to take, from the person or presence of another, or obtains or attempts to obtain by extortion any property or money or any other thing of value belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of, any bank, credit union, or any savings and loan association; or

`(2) enters or attempts to enter any bank, credit union, or any savings and loan association, or any building used in whole or in part as a bank, credit union, or as a savings and loan association, with intent to commit in such bank, credit union, or in such savings and loan association, or building, or part thereof, so used, any felony affecting such bank, credit union, or such savings and loan association and in violation of any statute of the United States, or any larceny;

shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(b) Taking and Carrying Away Property Over $1,000 in Value- Whoever takes and carries away, with intent to steal or purloin any property or money or any other thing of value exceeding $1,000 belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of any bank, credit union, or any savings and loan association, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than ten years, or both.

`(c) Taking and Carrying Away Property of $1,000 or less in Value- Whoever takes and carries away, with intent to steal or purloin, any property or money or any other thing of value not exceeding $1,000 belonging to, or in the care, custody, control, management, or possession of any bank, credit union, or any savings and loan association, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than one year, or both.

`(c) RECEIVING STOLEN BANK PROPERTY- Whoever receives, possesses, conceals, stores, barters, sells, or disposes of, any property or money or other thing of value which has been taken or stolen from a bank, credit union, or savings and loan association in violation of subsection (b) or (c), knowing the same to be property which has been stolen shall be subject to the punishment provided in subsection (b) or (c) for the taker.

`(d) ASSAULTING PERSON OR PLACING LIFE IN JEOPARDY- Whoever, in committing, or in attempting to commit, any offense defined in subsections (a) through (c), assaults any person, or puts in jeopardy the life of any person by the use of a dangerous weapon or device, shall be imprisoned not more than 25 years.

`(e) KILLING AND KIDNAPING- Whoever, in committing any offense defined in this section, or in avoiding or attempting to avoid apprehension for the commission of such offense, or in freeing himself or attempting to free himself from arrest or confinement for such offense, kills any person, or forces any person to accompany him without the consent of such person, shall be imprisoned not less than ten years, or if death results shall be punished by death or life imprisonment.

`(f) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `bank' means any member bank of the Federal Reserve System, and any bank, banking association, trust company, savings bank, or other banking institution organized or operating under the laws of the United States, including a branch or agency of a foreign bank (as such terms are defined in paragraphs (1) and (3) of section 1(b) of the International Banking Act of 1978), and any institution the deposits of which are insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation;

`(2) the term `credit union' means any Federal credit union and any State-chartered credit union the accounts of which are insured by the National Credit Union Administration Board, and any `Federal credit union' as defined in section 2 of the Federal Credit Union Act;

`(3) the term `State-chartered credit union' includes a credit union chartered under the laws of a State; and

`(4) the term `savings and loan association' means--

`(A) a Federal savings association or State savings association (as defined in section 3(b) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b))) having accounts insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation; and

`(B) a corporation described in section 3(b)(1)(C) of the Federal Deposit Insurance Act (12 U.S.C. 1813(b)(1)(C)) that is operating under the laws of the United States.

`Sec. 144. Communication of ransom demands and other threatening communications in or affecting commerce

`(a) Kidnap Ransom- Whoever knowingly transmits, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, any communication containing any demand or request for a ransom or reward for the release of any kidnapped person shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(b) Threats to Kidnap or Injure- Whoever, with intent to extort from any person any money or other thing of value, knowingly transmits, in or affecting interstate commerce, any communication containing any threat to kidnap any person or any threat to injure the person of another, shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(d) Threats to Property or Reputation With Intent to Extort- Whoever, with intent to extort from any person any money or other thing of value, knowingly transmits, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, any communication containing any threat--

`(1) to injure the property or reputation of another or the reputation of a deceased person; or

`(2) to accuse another of a crime;

shall be or imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`Sec. 145. Extortion by officers or employees of the United States

`Whoever, being an officer, or employee of the United States or any department or agency thereof, or representing oneself to be or assuming to act as such, under color or pretense of office or employment commits or attempts an act of extortion, shall be imprisoned not more than three years; but if the amount so extorted or demanded does not exceed $1,000, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than one year.

`Sec. 146. Receiving the proceeds of extortion

`Whoever receives, possesses, conceals, or disposes of any money or other property which was obtained from the commission of any offense under this subchapter that is punishable by imprisonment for more than 1 year, knowing the same to have been unlawfully obtained, shall be imprisoned not more than 3 years.

`SUBCHAPTER G--EXTORTIONATE CREDIT TRANSACTIONS

`Sec.

`155. Making extortionate extensions of credit.

`156. Financing extortionate extensions of credit.

`157. Collection of extensions of credit by extortionate means.

`158. Effect on State laws.

`159. Definitions and rules of construction.

`Sec. 155. Making extortionate extensions of credit

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever makes any extortionate extension of credit, or conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(b) PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE OF EXTORTIONATE TRANSACTION- In any prosecution under this section, if it is shown that all of the following factors were present in connection with the extension of credit in question, there is prima facie evidence that the extension of credit was extortionate:

`(1) The repayment of the extension of credit, or the performance of any promise given in consideration thereof, would be unenforceable, through civil judicial processes against the debtor--

`(A) in the jurisdiction within which the debtor, if a natural person, resided; or

`(B) in every jurisdiction within which the debtor, if other than a natural person, was incorporated or qualified to do business at the time the extension of credit was made.

`(2) The extension of credit was made at a rate of interest in excess of an annual rate of 45 per centum calculated according to the actuarial method of allocating payments made on a debt between principal and interest, pursuant to which a payment is applied first to the accumulated interest and the balance is applied to the unpaid principal.

`(3) At the time the extension of credit was made, the debtor reasonably believed that either--

`(A) one or more extensions of credit by the creditor had been collected or attempted to be collected by extortionate means, or the nonrepayment thereof had been punished by extortionate means; or

`(B) the creditor had a reputation for the use of extortionate means to collect extensions of credit or to punish the nonrepayment thereof.

`(4) Upon the making of the extension of credit, the total of the extensions of credit by the creditor to the debtor then outstanding, including any unpaid interest or similar charges, exceeded $100.

`(c) REPUTATION EVIDENCE- In any prosecution under this section, if evidence is introduced tending to show the existence of any of the circumstances described in subsection (b)(1) or (b)(2), and direct evidence of the actual belief of the debtor as to the creditor's collection practices is not available, then for the purpose of showing the understanding of the debtor and the creditor at the time the extension of credit was made, the court may in its discretion allow evidence to be introduced tending to show the reputation as to collection practices of the creditor in any community of which the debtor was a member at the time of the extension.

`Sec. 156. Financing extortionate extensions of credit

`Whoever knowingly advances money or property, whether as a gift, as a loan, as an investment, pursuant to a partnership or profit-sharing agreement, or otherwise, to any person, with reason to believe that it is the intention of that person to use the money or property so advanced directly or indirectly for the purpose of making extortionate extensions of credit, shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`Sec. 157. Collection of extensions of credit by extortionate means

`Whoever knowingly uses any extortionate means--

`(1) to collect or attempt to collect any extension of credit; or

`(2) to punish any person for nonrepayment of an extension of credit;

shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`Sec. 158. Effect on State laws

`This subchapter does not preempt State law that would be permissible in the absence of this subchapter.

`Sec. 159. Definitions and rules of construction

`As used in this subchapter:

`(1) To extend credit means to make or renew any loan, or to enter into any agreement, tacit or express, whereby the repayment or satisfaction of any debt or claim, whether acknowledged or disputed, valid or invalid, and however arising, may or will be deferred.

`(2) The term `creditor', with reference to any given extension of credit, refers to any person making that extension of credit, or to any person claiming by, under, or through any person making that extension of credit.

`(3) The term `debtor', with reference to any given extension of credit, refers to any person to whom that extension of credit is made, or to any person who guarantees the repayment of that extension of credit, or in any manner undertakes to indemnify the creditor against loss resulting from the failure of any person to whom that extension of credit is made to repay the same.

`(4) The repayment of any extension of credit includes the repayment, satisfaction, or discharge in whole or in part of any debt or claim, acknowledged or disputed, valid or invalid, resulting from or in connection with that extension of credit.

`(5) To collect an extension of credit means to induce in any way any person to make repayment thereof.

`(6) An extortionate extension of credit is any extension of credit with respect to which it is the understanding of the creditor and the debtor at the time it is made that delay in making repayment or failure to make repayment could result in the use of violence or other criminal means to cause harm to the person, reputation, or property of any person.

`(7) An extortionate means is any means which involves the use, or an express or implicit threat of use, of violence or other criminal means to cause harm to the person, reputation, or property of any person.

`(8) State law, including conflict of laws rules, governing the enforceability through civil judicial processes of repayment of any extension of credit or the performance of any promise given in consideration thereof shall be judicially noticed. This paragraph does not impair any authority which any court would otherwise have to take judicial notice of any matter of State law.

`SUBCHAPTER H--DOMESTIC VIOLENCE

`Sec.

`161. Interstate domestic violence; interstate stalking; interstate violations of custody orders.

`162. Pretrial release of defendant.

`163. Full faith and credit given to protection orders.

`164. Definitions.

`165. Repeat offenders.

`Sec. 161. Interstate domestic violence; interstate stalking; interstate violations of custody orders

`(a) Offenses- Whoever--

`(1) travels in interstate or foreign commerce or enters or leaves Indian country or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States with the intent to kill, injure, harass, or intimidate a spouse, intimate partner, or dating partner, and who, in the course of or as a result of such travel, commits or attempts to commit a crime of violence against that spouse, intimate partner, or dating partner;

`(2) causes a spouse, intimate partner, or dating partner to travel in interstate or foreign commerce or to enter or leave Indian country or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States by force, coercion, duress, or fraud, and who, in the course of, as a result of, or to facilitate such conduct or travel, commits or attempts to commit a crime of violence against that spouse, intimate partner, or dating partner;

`(3) travels in interstate or foreign commerce or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, or enters or leaves Indian country, with the intent to kill, injure, harass, or place under surveillance with intent to kill, injure, harass, or intimidate another person, and in the course of, or as a result of, such travel places that person in reasonable fear of the death of, or serious bodily injury to, or causes substantial emotional distress to that person, a member of the immediate family (as defined in section 115) of that person, or the spouse or intimate partner of that person; or

`(4) with the intent--

`(A) to kill, injure, harass, or place under surveillance with intent to kill, injure, harass, or intimidate, or cause substantial emotional distress to a person in another State or tribal jurisdiction or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States; or

`(B) to place a person in another State or tribal jurisdiction, or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, in reasonable fear of the death of, or serious bodily injury to--

`(i) that person;

`(ii) a member of the immediate family (as defined in section 115 of that person; or

`(iii) a spouse or intimate partner of that person;

uses the mail, any interactive computer service, or any facility of interstate or foreign commerce to engage in a course of conduct that causes substantial emotional distress to that person or places that person in reasonable fear of the death of, or serious bodily injury to, any of the persons described in clauses (i) through (iii) of subparagraph (B);

`(5) travels in interstate or foreign commerce, or enters or leaves Indian country, with the intent to engage in conduct that violates the portion of a protection order that prohibits or provides protection against violence, threats, or harassment against, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to, another person, or that would violate such a portion of a protection order in the jurisdiction in which the order was issued, and subsequently engages in such conduct; or

`(6) causes another person to travel in interstate or foreign commerce or to enter or leave Indian country by force, coercion, duress, or fraud, and in the course of, as a result of, or to facilitate such conduct or travel engages in conduct that violates the portion of a protection order that prohibits or provides protection against violence, threats, or harassment against, contact or communication with, or physical proximity to, another person, or that would violate such a portion of a protection order in the jurisdiction in which the order was issued;

shall be punished as provided in subsection (b).

`(b) PUNISHMENT-

`(1) IN GENERAL- Whoever violates subsection (a) shall be imprisoned--

`(A) for life or any term of years, if death of the victim results;

`(B) for not more than 20 years if permanent disfigurement or life threatening bodily injury to the victim results;

`(C) for not more than 10 years, if serious bodily injury to the victim results or if the offender uses a dangerous weapon during the offense;

`(D) as provided for the applicable conduct under subchapter A of chapter 13 if the offense would constitute an offense under that subchapter (without regard to whether the offense was committed in the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States or in a Federal prison); and

`(E) for not more than 5 years, in any other case.

`(2) SPECIAL RULE- Whoever violates paragraph (3) or (4) of subsection (a) in violation of a temporary or permanent civil or criminal injunction, restraining order, no-contact order, or other order described in section 164 shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than 1 year.

`Sec. 162. Pretrial release of defendant

`In any proceeding pursuant to section 3142 for the purpose of determining whether a defendant charged under this subchapter shall be released pending trial, or for the purpose of determining conditions of such release, the alleged victim shall be given an opportunity to be heard regarding the danger posed by the defendant.

`Sec. 163. Full faith and credit given to protection orders

`(a) Full Faith and Credit- Any protection order issued that is consistent with subsection (b) of this section by the court of one State, Indian tribe, or territory (the issuing State, Indian tribe, or territory) shall be accorded full faith and credit by the court of another State, Indian tribe, or territory (the enforcing State, Indian tribe, or territory) and enforced by the court and law enforcement personnel of the other State, Indian tribal government or Territory as if it were the order of the enforcing State, Indian tribe, or territory.

`(b) Protection Order- A protection order issued by a State, tribal, or territorial court is consistent with this subsection if--

`(1) such court has jurisdiction over the parties and matter under the law of such State, Indian tribe, or territory; and

`(2) reasonable notice and opportunity to be heard is given to the person against whom the order is sought sufficient to protect that person's right to due process; and in the case of ex parte orders, notice and opportunity to be heard must be provided within the time required by State, tribal, or territorial law, and in any event within a reasonable time after the order is issued, sufficient to protect the respondent's due process rights.

`(c) Cross or Counter Petition- A protection order issued by a State, tribal, or territorial court against one who has petitioned, filed a complaint, or otherwise filed a written pleading for protection against abuse by a spouse or intimate partner is not entitled to full faith and credit if--

`(1) no cross or counter petition, complaint, or other written pleading was filed seeking such a protection order; or

`(2) a cross or counter petition has been filed and the court did not make specific findings that each party was entitled to such an order.

`(d) Notification and Registration-

`(1) Notification- A State, Indian tribe, or territory according full faith and credit to an order by a court of another State, Indian tribe, or territory shall not notify or require notification of the party against whom a protection order has been issued that the protection order has been registered or filed in that enforcing State, tribal, or territorial jurisdiction unless requested to do so by the party protected under such order.

`(2) No prior registration or filing as prerequisite for enforcement- Any protection order that is otherwise consistent with this section shall be accorded full faith and credit, notwithstanding failure to comply with any requirement that the order be registered or filed in the enforcing State, tribal, or territorial jurisdiction.

`(3) Limits on internet publication of registration information- A State, Indian tribe, or territory shall not make available publicly on the Internet any information regarding the registration, filing of a petition for, or issuance of a protection order, restraining order or injunction, restraining order, or injunction in either the issuing or enforcing State, tribal or territorial jurisdiction, if such publication would be likely to publicly reveal the identity or location of the party protected under such order. A State, Indian tribe, or territory may share court-generated and law enforcement-generated information contained in secure, governmental registries for protection order enforcement purposes.

`(e) Tribal Court Jurisdiction- For purposes of this section, a tribal court shall have full civil jurisdiction to enforce protection orders, including authority to enforce any orders through civil contempt proceedings, exclusion of violators from Indian lands, and other appropriate mechanisms, in matters arising within the authority of the tribe.

`Sec. 164. Definitions

`As used in this subchapter--

`(1) the term `course of conduct' means a pattern of conduct composed of 2 or more acts, demonstrating a continuity of purpose;

`(2) the term `enter or leave Indian country' includes leaving the jurisdiction of 1 tribal government and entering the jurisdiction of another tribal government;

`(3) the term `protection order' includes--

`(A) any injunction, restraining order, or any other order issued by a civil or criminal court for the purpose of preventing violent or threatening acts or harassment against, sexual violence, or contact or communication with or physical proximity to, another person, including any temporary or final order issued by a civil or criminal court whether obtained by filing an independent action or as a pendente lite order in another proceeding so long as any civil or criminal order was issued in response to a complaint, petition, or motion filed by or on behalf of a person seeking protection; and

`(B) any support, child custody or visitation provisions, orders, remedies or relief issued as part of a protection order, restraining order, or injunction pursuant to State, tribal, territorial, or local law authorizing the issuance of protection orders, restraining orders, or injunctions for the protection of victims of domestic violence, sexual assault, dating violence, or stalking;

`(4) the term `spouse or intimate partner' includes--

`(A) for purposes of--

`(i) all provisions except paragraphs (3) and (4) of section 161--

`(I) a spouse or former spouse of the abuser, a person who shares a child in common with the abuser, and a person who cohabits or has cohabited as a spouse with the abuser; or

`(II) a person who is or has been in a social relationship of a romantic or intimate nature with the abuser, as determined by the length of the relationship, the type of relationship, and the frequency of interaction between the persons involved in the relationship; and

`(ii) section 2261A--

`(I) a spouse or former spouse of the target of the stalking, a person who shares a child in common with the target of the stalking, and a person who cohabits or has cohabited as a spouse with the target of the stalking; or

`(II) a person who is or has been in a social relationship of a romantic or intimate nature with the target of the stalking, as determined by the length of the relationship, the type of the relationship, and the frequency of interaction between the persons involved in the relationship; and

`(B) any other person similarly situated to a spouse who is protected by the domestic or family violence laws of the State or tribal jurisdiction in which the injury occurred or where the victim resides;

`(5) the term `travel in interstate or foreign commerce' does not include travel from one State to another by an individual who is a member of an Indian tribe and who remains at all times in the territory of the Indian tribe of which the individual is a member; and

`(6) the term `dating partner' refers to a person who is or has been in a social relationship of a romantic or intimate nature with the abuser; and the existence of such a relationship is based on a consideration of--

`(A) the length of the relationship;

`(B) the type of relationship; and

`(C) the frequency of interaction between the persons involved in the relationship.

`Sec. 165. Repeat offenders

`(a) Maximum Term of Imprisonment- The maximum term of imprisonment for a violation of this chapter after a prior domestic violence or stalking offense shall be twice the term otherwise provided under this chapter.

`(b) Definition- As used in this section, the term `prior domestic violence or stalking offense' means a conviction for an offense--

`(1) under section 161; or

`(2) under State law for an offense consisting of conduct that would have been an offense under a section referred to in subparagraph (A) if the conduct had occurred within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, or in interstate or foreign commerce.

`SUBCHAPTER I--PROTECTION OF UNBORN CHILDREN

`Sec.

`171. Protection of unborn children.

`172. Partial-birth abortions prohibited

`Sec. 171. Protection of unborn children

`(a)(1) Whoever engages in conduct that violates any of the provisions of law listed in subsection (b) and thereby causes the death of, or bodily injury to, a child, who is in utero at the time the conduct takes place, is guilty of a separate offense under this section.

`(2)(A) Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph, the punishment for that separate offense is the same as the punishment provided under Federal law for that conduct had that injury or death occurred to the unborn child's mother.

`(B) An offense under this section does not require proof that--

`(i) the person engaging in the conduct had knowledge or should have had knowledge that the victim of the underlying offense was pregnant; or

`(ii) the defendant intended to cause the death of, or bodily injury to, the unborn child.

`(C) If the person engaging in the conduct thereby intentionally kills or attempts to kill the unborn child, that person shall instead of being punished under subparagraph (A) and subject to subparagraph (D), be punished as provided under subchapter A for the like offense.

`(D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the death penalty shall not be imposed for an offense under this section.

`(b) The provisions referred to in subsection (a) are the following:

`(1) Sections 101, 102, 111, 121, 123, 143, 161, 165, 201, 204, 271, 273, 413(e), 501, 502, 506, 507, 584, 593, 601, 614, 631, 873, 892, 895, 897, 1112, 1131, 1133, 1137, 1138, 1204, 1216, 1291, 1296, 1306, and 1373 of this title.

`(2) Section 202 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2283).

`(c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit the prosecution--

`(1) of any person for conduct relating to an abortion for which the consent of the pregnant woman, or a person authorized by law to act on her behalf, has been obtained or for which such consent is implied by law;

`(2) of any person for any medical treatment of the pregnant woman or her unborn child; or

`(3) of any woman with respect to her unborn child.

`(d) As used in this section, the term `unborn child' means a child in utero, and the term `child in utero' or `child, who is in utero' means a member of the species homo sapiens, at any stage of development, who is carried in the womb.

`Sec. 172. Partial-birth abortions prohibited

`(a) Any physician who, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, knowingly performs a partial-birth abortion and thereby kills a human fetus shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than 2 years, or both. This subsection does not apply to a partial-birth abortion that is necessary to save the life of a mother whose life is endangered by a physical disorder, physical illness, or physical injury, including a life-endangering physical condition caused by or arising from the pregnancy itself.

`(b) As used in this section--

`(1) the term `partial-birth abortion' means an abortion in which the person performing the abortion--

`(A) deliberately and intentionally vaginally delivers a living fetus until, in the case of a head-first presentation, the entire fetal head is outside the body of the mother, or, in the case of breech presentation, any part of the fetal trunk past the navel is outside the body of the mother, for the purpose of performing an overt act that the person knows will kill the partially delivered living fetus; and

`(B) performs the overt act, other than completion of delivery, that kills the partially delivered living fetus; and

`(2) the term `physician' means a doctor of medicine or osteopathy legally authorized to practice medicine and surgery by the State in which the doctor performs such activity, or any other individual legally authorized by the State to perform abortions: Provided, however, That any individual who is not a physician or not otherwise legally authorized by the State to perform abortions, but who nevertheless directly performs a partial-birth abortion, shall be subject to the provisions of this section.

`(c)(1) The father, if married to the mother at the time she receives a partial-birth abortion procedure, and if the mother has not attained the age of 18 years at the time of the abortion, the maternal grandparents of the fetus, may in a civil action obtain appropriate relief, unless the pregnancy resulted from the plaintiff's criminal conduct or the plaintiff consented to the abortion.

`(2) Such relief shall include--

`(A) money damages for all injuries, psychological and physical, occasioned by the violation of this section; and

`(B) statutory damages equal to three times the cost of the partial-birth abortion.

`(d)(1) A defendant accused of an offense under this section may seek a hearing before the State Medical Board on whether the physician's conduct was necessary to save the life of the mother whose life was endangered by a physical disorder, physical illness, or physical injury, including a life-endangering physical condition caused by or arising from the pregnancy itself.

`(2) The findings on that issue are admissible on that issue at the trial of the defendant. Upon a motion of the defendant, the court shall delay the beginning of the trial for not more than 30 days to permit such a hearing to take place.

`(e) A woman upon whom a partial-birth abortion is performed may not be prosecuted under this section, for a conspiracy to violate this section, or for an offense under section 2, 3, or 4 based on a violation of this section.

`CHAPTER 13--SEX CRIMES

`Subchapter

--Sec.

201

211

221

241

255

`SUBCHAPTER B--SEXUAL ABUSE

`Sec.

`201. Sexual abuse.

`202. Abusive sexual contact.

`203. Special rules and defenses.

`204. Sexual abuse resulting in death.

`205. Definitions for subchapter.

`Sec. 201. Sexual abuse

`(a) Elements of Offense- As made applicable and punished in subsection (b), the following offenses have the following elements:

`(1) AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ABUSE- Whoever--

`(A) knowingly causes another person to engage in a sexual act--

`(i) by using force against that other person; or

`(ii) by threatening or placing that other person in fear that any person will be subjected to death, serious bodily injury, substantial risk of unconsciousness, or kidnapping;

`(B) knowingly--

`(i) renders another person unconscious and thereby engages in a sexual act with that other person; or

`(ii) administers to another person by force or threat of force, or without the knowledge or permission of that person, a drug, intoxicant, or other similar substance and thereby--

`(I) substantially impairs the ability of that other person to appraise or control conduct; and

`(II) engages in a sexual act with that other person; or

`(C) knowingly engages in a sexual act with another person--

`(i) who has not attained the age of 12 years; or

`(ii) who has attained the age of 12 years but has not attained the age of 16 years (and is at least 4 years younger than the person so engaging);

is guilty of aggravated sexual abuse.

`(2) SEXUAL ABUSE- Whoever knowingly--

`(A) causes another person to engage in a sexual act by threatening or placing that other person in fear (other than by threatening or placing that other person in fear that any person will be subjected to death, serious bodily injury, substantial risk of unconsciousness, or kidnapping); or

`(B) engages in a sexual act with another person if that other person is--

`(i) incapable of appraising the nature of the conduct; or

`(ii) physically incapable of declining participation in, or communicating unwillingness to engage in, that sexual act;

is guilty of sexual abuse.

`(3) SEXUAL ABUSE OF A WARD- Whoever knowingly engages in a sexual act with another person who is--

`(A) in official detention; and

`(B) under the custodial, supervisory, or disciplinary authority of the person so engaging;

is guilty of sexual abuse of a ward.

`(b) Penalties and Circumstances for Federal Offense-

`(1) PENALTIES-

`(A) AGGRAVATED SEXUAL ABUSE- Whoever commits aggravated sexual abuse in a place described in paragraph (2) shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`(B) SEXUAL ABUSE- Whoever commits sexual abuse in a place described in paragraph (2) shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(C) SEXUAL ABUSE OF A WARD- Whoever commits sexual abuse of a ward in a place described in paragraph (2) shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`(2) CIRCUMSTANCES- The places referred to in paragraph (1) are--

`(A) the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States; or

`(B) a Federal prison or any prison institution or facility in which persons are held in custody by direction of or pursuant to a contract or agreement with the Attorney General.

`Sec. 202. Abusive sexual contact

`(a) Sexual Contact in Circumstances Where Sexual Acts Are Punishable- Whoever engages in sexual contact with another person--

`(1) under circumstances in which, if the sexual contact had been a sexual act, the sexual contact would be punishable under section 201(b)(1), shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years;

`(2) under circumstances in which, if the sexual contact had been a sexual act, the sexual contact would be punishable under section 201(b)(2), shall be imprisoned not more than 3 years; and

`(3) under circumstances in which, if the sexual contact had been a sexual act, the sexual contact would be punishable under section 201(b)(3), shall be imprisoned not more than 2 years.

`(b) Enhanced Penalty Where Contact Is With a Child Under 12 Years of Age- If the sexual contact that violates this section is with an individual who has not attained the age of 12 years, the maximum term of imprisonment that may be imposed for the offense is twice that otherwise provided in this section.

`Sec. 203. Special rules and defenses

`(a) PROOF OF STATE OF MIND AS TO AGE- In a prosecution under this subchapter involving a sexual act or sexual contact with a child, the Government need not prove that the defendant knew the age of the child or that any age difference required for the offense did not exist.

`(b) DEFENSES-

`(1) SEXUAL ABUSE OR SEXUAL CONTACT INVOLVING A CHILD- It is a affirmative defense to a prosecution under this subchapter for an offense involving a child where an element of the offense is that the child not be 16 years of age or older that the defendant reasonably believed the child to be 16 years of age or older.

`(2) MARRIAGE IN CERTAIN CASES- It is an affirmative defense to prosecution for an offense under this subchapter involving a sexual act or sexual contact with a ward, that the ward was married to the person engaging in the sexual act or contact at the time of the alleged offense.

`Sec. 204. Sexual abuse resulting in death

`Whoever, in the course of an offense under this subchapter, engages in conduct that results in the death of a person, shall be punished by death or imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`Sec. 205. Definitions for subchapter

`As used in this subchapter--

`(1) the term `sexual act' means--

`(A) contact between the penis and the vulva or the penis and the anus, and for purposes of this subparagraph contact involving the penis occurs upon penetration, however slight;

`(B) contact between the mouth and the penis, the mouth and the vulva, or the mouth and the anus;

`(C) the penetration, however slight, of the anal or genital opening of another by a hand or finger or by any object, with an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person; or

`(D) the intentional touching, not through the clothing, of the genitalia of another person who has not attained the age of 16 years with an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person;

`(2) the term `sexual contact' means the intentional touching, either directly or through the clothing, of the genitalia, anus, groin, breast, inner thigh, or buttocks of any person with an intent to abuse, humiliate, harass, degrade, or arouse or gratify the sexual desire of any person;

`(3) the term `official detention' means--

`(A) detention by a Federal officer or employee, or under the direction of a Federal officer or employee, following arrest for an offense; following surrender in lieu of arrest for an offense; following a charge or conviction of an offense, or an allegation or finding of juvenile delinquency; following commitment as a material witness; following civil commitment in lieu of criminal proceedings or pending resumption of criminal proceedings that are being held in abeyance, or pending extradition, deportation, or exclusion; or

`(B) custody by a Federal officer or employee, or under the direction of a Federal officer or employee, for purposes incident to any detention described in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, including transportation, medical diagnosis or treatment, court appearance, work, and recreation;

but does not include supervision or other control (other than custody during specified hours or days) after release on bail, probation, or parole, or after release following a finding of juvenile delinquency.

`SUBCHAPTER B--TRANSPORT FOR ILLEGAL SEXUAL ACTIVITY

`Sec.

`211. Transportation generally.

`212. Coercion and enticement.

`213. Transportation of children.

`214. Use of interstate facilities to transmit information about a child.

`Sec. 211. Transportation generally

`Whoever knowingly transports an individual in interstate or foreign commerce, or in any territory or possession of the United States, with intent that such individual engage in prostitution, or in any sexual activity for which any person can be charged with a criminal offense, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`Sec. 212. Coercion and enticement

`(a) Whoever knowingly persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any individual to travel in interstate or foreign commerce, or in any territory or possession of the United States, to engage in prostitution, or in any sexual activity for which any person can be charged with a criminal offense, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(b) Whoever, using any facility of interstate or foreign commerce, or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, knowingly persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child to engage in prostitution or any sexual activity for which any person can be charged with a criminal offense, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not less than 5 years and not more than 30 years.

`Sec. 213. Transportation of children

`(a) Transportation With Intent To Engage in Criminal Sexual Activity- Whoever transports a child in interstate or foreign commerce, or in any territory or possession of the United States, with intent that the child engage in prostitution, or in any sexual activity for which any person can be charged with a criminal offense, shall be imprisoned not less than 5 years and not more than 30 years.

`(b) Travel With Intent To Engage in Illicit Sexual Conduct- Whoever travels in interstate commerce or travels into the United States, or, being a United States citizen or an alien admitted for permanent residence in the United States, travels in foreign commerce, for the purpose of engaging in any illicit sexual conduct shall be imprisoned not more than 30 years.

`(c) Engaging in Illicit Sexual Conduct in Foreign Places- Any United States citizen or alien admitted for permanent residence who travels in foreign commerce, and engages in any illicit sexual conduct shall be imprisoned not more than 30 years.

`(d) Ancillary Offenses- Whoever, for the purpose of commercial advantage or private financial gain, arranges, induces, procures, or facilitates the travel of a person knowing that such a person is traveling in interstate commerce or foreign commerce for the purpose of engaging in illicit sexual conduct shall be imprisoned not more than 30 years.

`(e) Attempt and Conspiracy- Whoever attempts or conspires to violate subsection (a), (b), (c), or (d) shall be punishable in the same manner as a completed violation of that subsection.

`(f) Definition- As used in this section, the term `illicit sexual conduct' means--

`(1) a sexual act (as defined in section 205) with a child that would be in violation of subchapter A if the sexual act occurred in the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States;

`(2) any commercial sex act (as defined in section 1265) with a child; or

`(3) the production of child pornography, as defined in section 229.

`(g) Defense- In a prosecution under this section based on illicit sexual conduct as defined in subsection (f)(2), it is an affirmative defense that the defendant reasonably believed that the person with whom the defendant engaged in the commercial sex act had attained the age of 18 years.

`Sec. 214. Use of interstate facilities to transmit information about a child

`Whoever, using a facility of interstate or foreign commerce, or within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, knowingly transmits of the name, address, telephone number, social security number, or electronic mail address of another individual, knowing that such other individual has not attained the age of 16 years, with the intent to entice, encourage, offer, or solicit any person to engage in any sexual activity for which any person can be charged with a criminal offense, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`SUBCHAPTER C--SEXUAL EXPLOITATION OF CHILDREN

`Sec.

`221. Sexual exploitation of children.

`222. Selling or buying of children.

`223. Certain activities relating to material involving the sexual exploitation of children and child pornography.

`224. Misleading domain names on the Internet.

`225. Definitions for subchapter.

`226. Record keeping requirements.

`227. Failure to report child abuse.

`Sec. 221. Sexual exploitation of children

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, as made applicable in subsection (b)--

`(1) either--

`(A) employs, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces any child to engage in, or who has a child assist any other person to engage in, any sexually explicit conduct for the purpose of producing any visual depiction of such conduct; or

`(B) transports any child in interstate or foreign commerce, or in any territory or possession of the United States, with the intent that such child engage in such conduct for such purpose; or

`(2) being a parent, legal guardian, or person having custody or control of a child knowingly permits such child to engage in, or to assist any other person to engage in, sexually explicit conduct for the purpose of producing any visual depiction of such conduct;

or attempts or conspires to do so shall be punished as provided under subsection (e).

`(b) APPLICABILITY- Subsection (a) applies if--

`(1) the person engaging in that conduct knows or has reason to know that such visual depiction will be transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce;

`(2) such visual depiction was produced using materials that have been transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(3) such visual depiction has actually been transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce.

`(c) EXTRATERRITORIAL JURISDICTION- There is extraterritorial jurisdiction over an offense under subsection (a)(1) if the offender--

`(1) intends such visual depiction to be transported to the United States; or

`(2) transports such visual depiction to the United States.

`(d) ADVERTISEMENTS- (1) Whoever, as made applicable by paragraph (2), knowingly makes, prints, or publishes, or causes to be made, printed, or published, any notice or advertisement seeking or offering--

`(A) to receive, exchange, buy, produce, display, distribute, or reproduce, any visual depiction, if the production of such visual depiction involves the use of a child engaging in sexually explicit conduct and such visual depiction is of such conduct; or

`(B) participation in any act of sexually explicit conduct by or with any child for the purpose of producing a visual depiction of such conduct;

shall be punished as provided under subsection (e).

`(2) Paragraph (1) applies if--

`(A) such person knows or has reason to know that such notice or advertisement will be transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(B) such notice or advertisement is transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce.

`(e) PUNISHMENT- Whoever violates, or attempts or conspires to violate, this section shall be imprisoned not less than 15 years nor more than 30 years, but if such person has one prior conviction under this subchapter, subchapter F of chapter 35, or under section 920 of title 10 (article 120 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice), or under the laws of any State relating to the sexual exploitation of children, such person shall be imprisoned for not less than 25 years nor more than 50 years, but if such person has 2 or more such prior convictions, such person shall be imprisoned not less than 35 years nor more than life. Whoever, in the course of an offense under this section, engages in conduct that results in the death of a person, shall be punished by death or imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`Sec. 222. Selling or buying of children

`(a) TRANSFER OF CUSTODY- Whoever, as made applicable by subsection (d) and with a mental state described in subsection (c) having custody or control of a child, transfers that custody or control, or offers to do so, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than 30 years or for life.

`(b) OBTAINING CUSTODY- Whoever, as made applicable by subsection (d) and with a mental state described in subsection (c), obtains custody or control of a child, or offers to do so, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than 30 years or for life.

`(c) MENTAL STATE- The mental state referred to in subsections (a) and (b) is--

`(1) knowledge that, as a consequence of the transfer of custody, the child will be portrayed in a visual depiction engaging in, or assisting another person to engage in, sexually explicit conduct; or

`(2) intent to promote either--

`(A) the engaging in of sexually explicit conduct by such child for the purpose of producing any visual depiction of such conduct; or

`(B) the rendering of assistance by the child to any other person to engage in sexually explicit conduct for the purpose of producing any visual depiction of such conduct.

`(d) FEDERAL NEXUS- Conduct described in subsection (a) and (b) is an offense if--

`(1) in the course of the conduct the child or the person engaging in the conduct travel in interstate or foreign commerce;

`(2) any offer described in such subsections was communicated or transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(3) the conduct took place in any territory or possession of the United States.

`Sec. 223. Certain activities relating to material involving the sexual exploitation of children and child pornography

`(a) Offense- Whoever, as made applicable by subsection (b)--

`(1) knowingly--

`(A) transports an exploitative visual depiction or child pornography;

`(B) receives, or distributes, any exploitative visual depiction or child pornography; or

`(C) reproduces any exploitative visual depiction or child pornography for distribution;

`(2) knowingly--

`(A) sells or possesses with intent to sell any exploitative visual depiction or child pornography; or

`(B) knowingly possesses an exploitative visual depiction or child pornography;

`(3) advertises, promotes, presents, distributes, or solicits any material or purported material in a manner that reflects the belief, or that is intended to cause another to believe, that the material or purported material contains an exploitative visual depiction or child pornography;

or attempts or conspires to do so shall be punished as provided in subsection (c).

`(b) APPLICABILITY- Subsection (a) applies if--

`(1) the conduct occurs in the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, or in the Indian country as defined in section 871 of this title; or

`(2) the exploitative visual depiction or child pornography is transported in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, or was produced using materials which have been so transported.

`(c) PUNISHMENT- The punishment for a violation of this section is as follows:

`(1) Whoever violates paragraph (1) or (2)(A) of subsection (a) shall be imprisoned not less than 5 years and not more than 20 years, but if such person has a prior conviction under this chapter, subchapter F of chapter 35, or under section 920 of title 10 (article 120 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice), or under the laws of any State relating to aggravated sexual abuse, sexual abuse, or abusive sexual conduct involving a child or ward, or the production, possession, receipt, mailing, sale, distribution, shipment, or transportation of child pornography, such person shall be imprisoned for not less than 15 years nor more than 40 years.

`(2) Whoever violates, or attempts or conspires to violate, paragraph (2)(B) of subsection (a) shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years, or both, but if such person has a prior conviction under this subchapter, subchapter F of chapter 35, or under section 920 of title 10 (article 120 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice), or under the laws of any State relating to aggravated sexual abuse, sexual abuse, or abusive sexual conduct involving a child or ward, or the production, possession, receipt, mailing, sale, distribution, shipment, or transportation of child pornography, such person shall be imprisoned for not less than 10 years nor more than 20 years.

`(d) Affirmative Defense- It is an affirmative defense to a charge of violating paragraph (2)(B) of subsection (a) that the defendant--

`(1) possessed less than three matters containing any visual depiction proscribed by that paragraph; and

`(2) promptly and in good faith, and without retaining or allowing any person, other than a law enforcement agency, to access any visual depiction or copy thereof--

`(A) took reasonable steps to destroy each such visual depiction; or

`(B) reported the matter to a law enforcement agency and afforded that agency access to each such visual depiction.

`(e) Admissibility of Evidence- On motion of the government, in any prosecution under this subchapter or section 1444, except for good cause shown, the name, address, social security number, or other nonphysical identifying information, other than the age or approximate age, of any child who is depicted in any child pornography shall not be admissible and may be redacted from any otherwise admissible evidence, and the jury shall be instructed, upon request of the United States, that it can draw no inference from the absence of such evidence in deciding whether the child pornography depicts an actual child.

`(f) EXPLOITATIVE VISUAL DEPICTION DEFINED- In this section, a visual depiction is an exploitative visual depiction if--

`(1) the producing of such visual depiction involves the use of a child engaging in sexually explicit conduct; and

`(2) such visual depiction is of such conduct.

`Sec. 224. Misleading domain names on the Internet

`(a) OBSCENITY- Whoever knowingly uses a misleading domain name on the Internet with the intent to deceive a person into viewing material constituting obscenity shall be imprisoned not more than 2 years.

`(b) MATERIAL HARMFUL TO CHILDREN- Whoever knowingly uses a misleading domain name on the Internet with the intent to deceive a child into viewing material that is harmful to Children on the Internet shall be imprisoned not more than 4 years.

`(c) DEFINITION- For the purposes of this section--

`(1) a domain name that includes a word or words to indicate the sexual content of the site, such as `sex' or `porn', is not misleading;

`(2) the term `material that is harmful to children' means any communication, consisting of nudity, sex, or excretion, that, taken as a whole and with reference to its context--

`(A) predominantly appeals to a prurient interest of children;

`(B) is patently offensive to prevailing standards in the adult community as a whole with respect to what is suitable material for children; and

`(C) lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value for children; and

`(3) as used in this subsection, the term `sex' means acts of masturbation, sexual intercourse, or physical contact with a person's genitals, or the condition of human male or female genitals when in a state of sexual stimulation or arousal.

`Sec. 225. Definitions for subchapter

`In this subchapter the following definitions apply:

`(1)(A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), the term `sexually explicit conduct' means actual or simulated--

`(i) sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex;

`(ii) bestiality;

`(iii) masturbation;

`(iv) sadistic or masochistic abuse; or

`(v) lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area of any person.

`(B) For purposes of paragraph 5(B), the term `sexually explicit conduct' means--

`(i) graphic sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex, or lascivious simulated sexual intercourse where the genitals, breast, or pubic area of any person is exhibited;

`(ii) graphic or lascivious simulated--

`(I) bestiality;

`(II) masturbation; or

`(III) sadistic or masochistic abuse; or

`(iii) graphic or simulated lascivious exhibition of the genitals or pubic area of any person.

`(2) The term `producing' means producing, directing, manufacturing, issuing, publishing, or advertising.

`(3) The term `visual depiction' includes undeveloped film and videotape, and data stored on computer disk or by electronic means which is capable of conversion into a visual image.

`(4) The term`custody or control' includes temporary supervision over or responsibility for a child whether legally or illegally obtained.

`(5) The term `child pornography' means any visual depiction, including any photograph, film, video, picture, or computer or computer-generated image or picture, whether made or produced by electronic, mechanical, or other means, of sexually explicit conduct, where--

`(A) the production of such visual depiction involves the use of a child engaging in sexually explicit conduct;

`(B) such visual depiction is a digital image, computer image, or computer-generated image that is, or is indistinguishable from, that of a child engaging in sexually explicit conduct; or

`(C) such visual depiction has been created, adapted, or modified to appear that an identifiable child is engaging in sexually explicit conduct.

`(6) The term `identifiable child'--

`(A) means a person--

`(i)(I) who was a child at the time the visual depiction was created, adapted, or modified; or

`(II) whose image as a child was used in creating, adapting, or modifying the visual depiction; and

`(ii) who is recognizable as an actual person by the person's face, likeness, or other distinguishing characteristic, such as a unique birthmark or other recognizable feature; and

`(B) shall not be construed to require proof of the actual identity of the identifiable child.

`(7) The term `graphic', when used with respect to a depiction of sexually explicit conduct, means that a viewer can observe any part of the genitals or pubic area of any depicted person or animal during any part of the time that the sexually explicit conduct is being depicted.

`(8) The term `indistinguishable' used with respect to a depiction, means virtually indistinguishable, in that the depiction is such that an ordinary person viewing the depiction would conclude that the depiction is of an actual child engaged in sexually explicit conduct. This definition does not apply to depictions that are drawings, cartoons, sculptures, or paintings depicting minors or adults.

`Sec. 226. Record keeping requirements

`(a) DUTY TO KEEP RECORDS- Whoever produces any book, magazine, periodical, film, videotape, or other matter which--

`(1) contains one or more visual depictions made after November 1, 1990 of actual sexually explicit conduct; and

`(2) is produced in whole or in part with materials which have been mailed or shipped in interstate or foreign commerce, or is shipped or transported or is intended for shipment or transportation in interstate or foreign commerce;

shall create and maintain individually identifiable records pertaining to every performer portrayed in such a visual depiction.

`(b) DUTY TO ASCERTAIN CERTAIN INFORMATION- Any person to whom subsection (a) applies shall, with respect to every performer portrayed in a visual depiction of actual sexually explicit conduct--

`(1) ascertain, by examination of an identification document containing such information, the performer's name and date of birth, and require the performer to provide such other indicia of his or her identity as may be prescribed by regulations;

`(2) ascertain any name, other than the performer's present and correct name, ever used by the performer including maiden name, alias, nickname, stage, or professional name; and

`(3) record in the records required by subsection (a) the information required by paragraphs (1) and (2) of this subsection and such other identifying information as may be prescribed by regulation.

`(c) WHERE RECORDS MAINTAINED AND AVAILABILITY FOR INSPECTION- Any person to whom subsection (a) applies shall maintain the records required by this section at his business premises, or at such other place as the Attorney General may by regulation prescribe and shall make such records available to the Attorney General for inspection at all reasonable times.

`(d) EXCLUSION OF EVIDENCE-

`(1) No information or evidence obtained from records required to be created or maintained by this section shall, except as provided in this section, directly or indirectly, be used as evidence against any person with respect to any violation of law.

`(2) Paragraph (1) of this subsection does not preclude the use of such information or evidence in a prosecution or other action for a violation of this subchapter or subchapter F of chapter 35, or for a violation of any applicable provision of law with respect to the furnishing of false information.

`(e) STATEMENT-

`(1) Any person to whom subsection (a) applies shall cause to be affixed to every copy of any matter described in paragraph (1) of subsection (a) of this section, in such manner and in such form as the Attorney General shall by regulations prescribe, a statement describing where the records required by this section with respect to all performers depicted in that copy of the matter may be located.

`(2) If the person to whom subsection (a) of this section applies is an organization the statement required by this subsection shall include the name, title, and business address of the individual employed by such organization responsible for maintaining the records required by this section.

`(f) UNLAWFUL ACTS- It shall be unlawful--

`(1) for any person to whom subsection (a) applies to fail to create or maintain the records as required by subsections (a) and (c) or by any regulation promulgated under this section;

`(2) for any person to whom subsection (a) applies knowingly to make any false entry in or knowingly to fail to make an appropriate entry in, any record required by subsection (b) of this section or any regulation promulgated under this section;

`(3) for any person to whom subsection (a) applies knowingly to fail to comply with subsection (e) or any regulation promulgated pursuant to that subsection; and

`(4) for any person knowingly to sell or otherwise transfer, or offer for sale or transfer, any book, magazine, periodical, film, video, or other matter, produce in whole or in part with materials which have been mailed or shipped in interstate or foreign commerce or which is intended for shipment in interstate or foreign commerce, which--

`(A) contains one or more visual depictions made after the made after November 1, 1990 of actual sexually explicit conduct; and

`(B) is produced in whole or in part with materials which have been mailed or shipped in interstate or foreign commerce, or is shipped or transported or is intended for shipment or transportation in interstate or foreign commerce;

which does not have affixed thereto, in a manner prescribed as set forth in subsection (e)(1), a statement describing where the records required by this section may be located, but such person shall have no duty to determine the accuracy of the contents of the statement or the records required to be kept.

`(g) REGULATIONS- The Attorney General shall issue appropriate regulations to carry out this section.

`(h) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `actual sexually explicit conduct' means actual but not simulated conduct as defined in subparagraphs (A) through (D) of paragraph (2) of section 229 of this title;

`(2) `identification document' has the meaning given that term in section 783;

`(3) the term `produces' means to produce, manufacture, or publish any book, magazine, periodical, film, video tape, computer generated image, digital image, or picture, or other similar matter and includes the duplication, reproduction, or reissuing of any such matter, but does not include mere distribution or any other activity which does not involve hiring, contracting for managing, or otherwise arranging for the participation of the performers depicted; and

`(4) the term `performer' includes any person portrayed in a visual depiction engaging in, or assisting another person to engage in, actual sexually explicit conduct.

`(i) PENALTY FOR ANY VIOLATION OF THIS SECTION- Whoever violates this section shall be imprisoned for not more than 5 years. Whoever violates this section after having been convicted of a violation punishable under this section shall be imprisoned for any period of years not more than 10 years but not less than 2 years.

`Sec. 227. Failure to report child abuse

`Whoever, while engaged in a professional capacity or activity described in subsection (b) of section 226 of the Victims of Child Abuse Act of 1990 on Federal land or in a federally operated (or contracted) facility, learns of facts that give reason to suspect that a child has suffered an incident of child abuse, as defined in subsection (c) of that section, and fails to make a timely report as required by subsection (a) of that section, shall be imprisoned not more than 6 months.

`SUBCHAPTER D--SEX OFFENDER REGISTRY

`Sec.

`241. Failure to register.

`Sec. 241. Failure to register

`(a) In General- Whoever--

`(1) is required to register under the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act;

`(2)(A) is a sex offender as defined for the purposes of the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act by reason of a conviction under Federal law (including the Uniform Code of Military Justice), the law of the District of Columbia, Indian tribal law, or the law of any territory or possession of the United States; or

`(B) travels in interstate or foreign commerce, or enters or leaves, or resides in, Indian country; and

`(3) knowingly fails to register or update a registration as required by the Sex Offender Registration and Notification Act;

shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than 10 years, or both.

`(b) Affirmative Defense- In a prosecution for a violation under subsection (a), it is an affirmative defense that--

`(1) uncontrollable circumstances prevented the individual from complying;

`(2) the individual did not contribute to the creation of such circumstances in reckless disregard of the requirement to comply; and

`(3) the individual complied as soon as such circumstances ceased to exist.

`(c) Crime of Violence-

`(1) IN GENERAL- An individual described in subsection (a) who commits a crime of violence under Federal law (including the Uniform Code of Military Justice), the law of the District of Columbia, Indian tribal law, or the law of any territory or possession of the United States shall be imprisoned for not less than 5 years and not more than 30 years.

`(2) ADDITIONAL PUNISHMENT- The punishment provided in paragraph (1) shall be in addition and consecutive to the punishment provided for the violation described in subsection (a).

`SUBCHAPTER E--GENERAL PROVISIONS AND DEFINITIONS

`Sec.

`255. Repeat offenders.

`256. Civil remedy for personal injuries.

`Sec. 255. Repeat offenders

`(a) Maximum Term of Imprisonment- The maximum term of imprisonment for a violation of subchapter A or B after a prior sex offense conviction shall be twice the term of imprisonment otherwise provided by this chapter, unless section 3559(e) applies.

`(b) Definitions- In this section the term `prior sex offense conviction' means a conviction for an offense--

`(1) under this chapter; or

`(2) under State law for an offense consisting of conduct that would have been an offense under this chapter if the conduct had occurred within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States; and

`Sec. 256. Civil remedy for personal injuries

`(a) A child who is a victim of a violation of section 201, 202, 203, 211, 212, 213, 221, 222, or 223 and who suffers personal injury as a result of such violation may sue in any appropriate United States District Court and shall recover the actual damages such minor sustains and the cost of the suit, including a reasonable attorney's fee. Any child as described in the preceding sentence shall be deemed to have sustained damages of no less than $50,000 in value.

`(b) Any action commenced under this section shall be barred unless the complaint is filed within six years after the right of action first accrues or in the case of a person under a legal disability, not later than three years after the disability.

`CHAPTER 15--NATIONAL SECURITY AND RELATED CRIMES

`Subchapter

--Sec.

261

271

292

296

301

311

`SUBCHAPTER A--TREASON, SEDITION, AND SUBVERSIVE ACTIVITIES

`Sec.

`261. Treason.

`262. Misprision of treason.

`263. Rebellion or insurrection.

`264. Seditious conspiracy.

`265. Advocating overthrow of Government.

`Sec. 261. Treason

`Whoever, owing allegiance to the United States, levies war against them or adheres to their enemies, giving them aid and comfort within the United States or elsewhere, is guilty of treason and shall suffer death or be imprisoned for any term of years not less than five, and shall be incapable of holding any office under the United States.

`Sec. 262. Misprision of treason

`Whoever, owing allegiance to the United States and having knowledge of the commission of any treason against them, conceals and does not, as soon as may be, disclose and make known the same to the President or to some judge of the United States, or to the governor or to some judge or justice of a particular State, is guilty of misprision of treason and shall be imprisoned not more than seven years.

`Sec. 263. Rebellion or insurrection

`Whoever incites, sets on foot, assists, or engages in any rebellion or insurrection against the authority of the United States or the laws thereof, or gives aid or comfort thereto, shall be imprisoned not more than ten years and shall be incapable of holding any office under the United States.

`Sec. 264. Seditious conspiracy

`If two or more persons in any State or Territory, or in any place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, conspire to overthrow, put down, or to destroy by force the Government of the United States, or to levy war against them, or to oppose by force the authority thereof, or by force to prevent, hinder, or delay the execution of any law of the United States, or by force to seize, take, or possess any property of the United States contrary to the authority thereof, they shall each be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`Sec. 265. Advocating overthrow of Government

`(a) IN GENERAL- Whoever--

`(1) knowingly advocates, advises, or teaches the duty, necessity, desirability, or propriety of overthrowing or destroying the Government of the United States or the government of any State, or the government of any political subdivision therein, by force or violence, or by the assassination of any officer of any such government;

`(2) with intent to cause the overthrow or destruction of any such government, prints, publishes, edits, issues, circulates, sells, distributes, or publicly displays any written or printed matter advocating, advising, or teaching the duty, necessity, desirability, or propriety of overthrowing or destroying any government in the United States by force or violence; or

`(3) organizes or helps to organize any society, group, or assembly of persons who teach, advocate, or encourage the overthrow or destruction of any such government by force or violence; or becomes or is a member of, or affiliates with, any such society, group, or assembly of persons, knowing the purposes thereof;

shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years, and shall be ineligible for employment by the United States or any department or agency thereof, for the five years next following the conviction.

`(b) CONSPIRACY- If two or more persons conspire to commit any offense named in this section, each shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years and shall be ineligible for employment by the United States or any department or agency thereof, for the five years next following the conviction.

`(c) DEFINITION- As used in this section, the term `organize', with respect to any society, group, or assembly of persons, includes the recruiting of new members, the forming of new units, and the regrouping or expansion of existing clubs, classes, and other units of such society, group, or assembly of persons.

`SUBCHAPTER B--TERRORISM

`Sec.

`271. Weapons of mass destruction, and explosives and other lethal devices.

`272. Atomic weapons.

`273. Acts of terrorism transcending national boundaries.

`274. Financial transactions.

`275. Missile systems designed to destroy aircraft.

`276. Radiological dispersal devices.

`277. Harboring or concealing terrorists.

`278. Providing material support to terrorists.

`279. Providing material support or resources to designated foreign terrorist organizations.

`280. Prohibitions against the financing of terrorism.

`281. Receiving military-type training from a foreign terrorist organization.

`282. Civil remedies.

`283. Definitions for subchapter.

`Sec. 271. Weapons of mass destruction, and explosives and other lethal devices

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, without lawful authority, uses, threatens, to use, a weapon of mass destruction or an explosive or other lethal device--

`(1) against any property that is owned, leased, or used by the United States or by any department or agency of the United States, whether the property is within or outside of the United States;

`(2) against a national of the United States while such national is outside of the United States;

`(3) against any person or property within the United States, if the offense is in, or affects, interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(4) against any person or property outside of the United States, if the offender is a national of the United States;

shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life, and if death results, shall be punished by death or imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`(b) Definitions- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `weapon of mass destruction' means--

`(A) any destructive device as defined in section 581;

`(B) any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious bodily injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals, or their precursors;

`(C) any weapon involving a biological agent, toxin, or vector (as those terms are in defined in section 627);

`(D) any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life; or

`(E) any lethal device or explosive;

`(2) the term `property' includes all real and personal property;

`(3) the term `explosive' has the meaning given in section 844(j) of this title insofar that it is designed, or has the capability, to cause death, serious bodily injury, or substantial material damage; and

`(4) the term `other lethal device' means any weapon or device that is designed or has the capability to cause death, serious bodily injury, or substantial damage to property through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic chemicals, biological agents, or toxins (as those terms are defined in section 178 of this title) or radiation or radioactive material.

`Sec. 272. Atomic weapons

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, except as provided in section 91 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954, in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce in the United States or, as made applicable by subsection (b) outside the United States, knowingly participates in the development of, manufactures, produces, transfers, acquires, receives, possesses, imports, exports, or uses, or possesses and threatens to use, any atomic weapon. Nothing in this section modifies section 31 a. or section 101 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954.

`(b) FEDERAL NEXUS TO CONDUCT OUTSIDE OF THE UNITED STATES- Conduct outside the United States is prohibited by subsection (a) if--

`(1) the offense is committed by a national of the United States; or

`(2) the offense is committed against a national of the United States.

`Sec. 273. Acts of terrorism transcending national boundaries

`(a) Prohibited Acts-

`(1) Offenses- Whoever, involving conduct transcending national boundaries and as made applicable by subsection (b)--

`(A) kills, kidnaps, maims, commits an assault resulting in serious bodily injury, or assaults with a dangerous weapon any person within the United States; or

`(B) creates a substantial risk of serious bodily injury to any other person by destroying or damaging any structure, conveyance, or other real or personal property within the United States or by attempting or conspiring to destroy or damage any structure, conveyance, or other real or personal property within the United States;

in violation of the laws of any State, or the United States, shall be punished as prescribed in subsection (c).

`(2) Treatment of threats, attempts, and conspiracies- Whoever threatens to commit an offense under paragraph (1), or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be punished under subsection (c).

`(b) Applicability-

`(1) In General- Subsection (a) applies if--

`(A) the mail or any facility of interstate or foreign commerce is used in furtherance of the offense;

`(B) the offense obstructs, delays, or affects interstate or foreign commerce, or would have so obstructed, delayed, or affected interstate or foreign commerce if the offense had been consummated;

`(C) the victim, or intended victim, is the United States Government, a member of the uniformed services, or any official, officer, employee, or agent of the legislative, executive, or judicial branches, or of any department or agency, of the United States;

`(D) the structure, conveyance, or other real or personal property is, in whole or in part, owned, possessed, or leased to the United States, or any department or agency of the United States;

`(E) the offense is committed in the territorial sea (including the airspace above and the seabed and subsoil below, and artificial islands and fixed structures erected thereon) of the United States; or

`(F) the offense is committed within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States.

`(2) Co-conspirators and accessories after the fact- Subsection (a) applies with respect to all principals and co-conspirators of an offense under this section, and accessories after the fact to any offense under this section, if at least one of the circumstances described in subparagraphs (A) through (F) of paragraph (1) is applicable to at least one offender.

`(c) Penalties-

`(1) Generally- Whoever violates this section shall be punished--

`(A) for a killing, or if death results to any person from any other conduct prohibited by this section, by death, or by imprisonment for any term of years or for life;

`(B) for kidnapping, by imprisonment for any term of years or for life;

`(C) for maiming, by imprisonment for not more than 35 years;

`(D) for assault with a dangerous weapon or assault resulting in serious bodily injury, by imprisonment for not more than 30 years;

`(E) for destroying or damaging any structure, conveyance, or other real or personal property, by imprisonment for not more than 25 years;

`(F) for attempting or conspiring to commit an offense, for any term of years up to the maximum punishment that would have applied had the offense been completed; and

`(G) for threatening to commit an offense under this section, by imprisonment for not more than 10 years.

`(2) Consecutive sentence- Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not place on probation any person convicted of a violation of this section; nor shall the term of imprisonment imposed under this section run concurrently with any other term of imprisonment.

`(d) Proof Requirements- The following shall apply to prosecutions under this section:

`(1) Knowledge- The prosecution is not required to prove knowledge by any defendant of a jurisdictional base alleged in the indictment.

`(2) State law- In a prosecution under this section that is based upon the adoption of State law, only the elements of the offense under State law, and not any provisions pertaining to criminal procedure or evidence, are adopted.

`(e) Extraterritorial Jurisdiction- There is extraterritorial Federal jurisdiction--

`(1) over any offense under subsection (a), including any threat, attempt, or conspiracy to commit such offense; and

`(2) over conduct which, under section 3, renders any person an accessory after the fact to an offense under subsection (a).

`(f) Investigative Authority- In addition to any other investigative authority with respect to violations of this title, the Attorney General shall have primary investigative responsibility for all Federal crimes of terrorism, and any violation of section 102, 112, 614, 955, 1201, or 1205 and the Secretary of the Treasury shall assist the Attorney General at the request of the Attorney General. Nothing in this section shall be construed to interfere with the authority of the United States Secret Service under section 3056.

`(g) REQUESTS FOR MILITARY ASSISTANCE- The Attorney General may request the Secretary of Defense to provide assistance under section 382 of title 10 in support of Department of Justice activities relating to the enforcement of section 271 during an emergency situation involving a weapon of mass destruction. The authority to make such a request may be exercised by another official of the Department of Justice in accordance with section 382(f)(2) of title 10.

`(h) Definitions- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `conduct transcending national boundaries' means conduct occurring outside of the United States in addition to the conduct occurring in the United States;

`(2) the term `territorial sea of the United States' means all waters extending seaward to 12 nautical miles from the baselines of the United States, determined in accordance with international law; and

`(3) the term `Federal crime of terrorism' means an offense that--

`(A) is calculated to influence or affect the conduct of government by intimidation or coercion, or to retaliate against government conduct; and

`(B) is a violation of--

`(i) section 1301 (relating to destruction of aircraft or aircraft facilities), 1305 (relating to violence at international airports), 571 (relating to arson within special maritime and territorial jurisdiction), 621 or 623 (relating to biological weapons), 624 (relating to variola virus), 631 (relating to chemical weapons), 271 (relating weapons of mass destruction and explosives and other lethal devices), 612(m) or (n) (relating to plastic explosives), 614(f)(2) or (3) (relating to arson and bombing of Government property risking or causing death), 614(i) (relating to arson and bombing of property used in interstate commerce), 593(c) (relating to killing or attempted killing during an attack on a Federal facility with a dangerous weapon), 102(5) or (9) (relating to killings abroad), 787(a)(1) (relating to protection of computers), 787(a)(5)(A)(i) resulting in damage as defined in 787(a)(5)(B)(ii) through (v) (relating to protection of computers), 102(2), (4), or (8) (relating to killing of officers and employees of the United States foreign officials, official guests, or internationally protected persons), 123 (relating to hostage taking), 1201 (relating to government property or contracts), 1202 (relating to destruction of communication lines, stations, or systems), 1203 (relating to injury to buildings or property within special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States), 1205(a) (relating to destruction of an energy facility), 1331 (relating to terrorist attacks and other acts of violence against mass transportation systems), 274 (relating to financial transactions), 275 (relating to missile systems designed to destroy aircraft), 276 (relating to radiological dispersal devices), 277 (relating to harboring terrorists), 278 (relating to providing material support to terrorists), 279 (relating to providing material support to terrorist organizations), 280 (relating to financing of terrorism, or 1291 (relating to torture) of this title;

`(ii) section 92 (relating to prohibitions governing atomic weapons) or 236 (relating to sabotage of nuclear facilities or fuel) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2122 or 2284); or

`(iii) section 46502 (relating to aircraft piracy), the second sentence of section 46504 (relating to assault on a flight crew with a dangerous weapon), section 46505(b)(3) or (c) (relating to explosive or incendiary devices, or endangerment of human life by means of weapons, on aircraft), section 46506 if homicide or attempted homicide is involved (relating to application of certain criminal laws to acts on aircraft), or section 60123(b) (relating to destruction of interstate gas or hazardous liquid pipeline facility) of title 49.

`Sec. 274. Financial transactions

`(a) Offense- Except as provided in regulations issued by the Secretary of the Treasury, in consultation with the Secretary of State, whoever, being a United States person, knowing or having reasonable cause to know that a country is designated under section 6(j) of the Export Administration Act of 1979 (50 U.S.C. App. 2405) as a country supporting international terrorism, engages in a financial transaction with the government of that country, shall be imprisoned for not more than 10 years.

`(b) Definitions- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `financial transaction' has the same meaning as in section 1451; and

`(2) the term `United States person' means any--

`(A) United States citizen or national;

`(B) permanent resident alien;

`(C) juridical person organized under the laws of the United States; or

`(D) any person in the United States.

`Sec. 275. Missile systems designed to destroy aircraft

`(a) Unlawful Conduct-

`(1) In general- Except as provided in paragraph (3), it shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly produce, construct, otherwise acquire, transfer directly or indirectly, receive, possess, import, export, or use, or possess and threaten to use--

`(A) an explosive or incendiary rocket or missile that is guided by any system designed to enable the rocket or missile to--

`(i) seek or proceed toward energy radiated or reflected from an aircraft or toward an image locating an aircraft; or

`(ii) otherwise direct or guide the rocket or missile to an aircraft;

`(B) any device designed or intended to launch or guide a rocket or missile described in subparagraph (A); or

`(C) any part or combination of parts designed or redesigned for use in assembling or fabricating a rocket, missile, or device described in subparagraph (A) or (B).

`(2) Nonweapon- Paragraph (1)(A) does not apply to any device that is neither designed nor redesigned for use as a weapon.

`(3) Excluded conduct- This subsection does not apply with respect to--

`(A) conduct by or under the authority of the United States or any department or agency thereof or of a State or any department or agency thereof; or

`(B) conduct pursuant to the terms of a contract with the United States or any department or agency thereof or with a State or any department or agency thereof.

`(b) Jurisdiction- Conduct prohibited by subsection (a) is within the jurisdiction of the United States if--

`(1) the offense occurs in or affects interstate or foreign commerce;

`(2) the offense occurs outside of the United States and is committed by a national of the United States;

`(3) the offense is committed against a national of the United States while the national is outside the United States;

`(4) the offense is committed against any property that is owned, leased, or used by the United States or by any department or agency of the United States, whether the property is within or outside the United States; or

`(5) an offender aids or abets any person over whom jurisdiction exists under this subsection in committing an offense under this section or conspires with any person over whom jurisdiction exists under this subsection to commit an offense under this section.

`(c) Criminal Penalties-

`(1) In general- Any person who violates, or attempts or conspires to violate, subsection (a) shall be fined not more than $2,000,000 and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment not less than 25 years or to imprisonment for life.

`(2) Other circumstances- Any person who, in the course of a violation of subsection (a), uses, attempts or conspires to use, or possesses and threatens to use, any item or items described in subsection (a), shall be fined not more than $2,000,000 and imprisoned for not less than 30 years or imprisoned for life.

`(3) Special circumstances- If the death of another results from a person's violation of subsection (a), the person shall be fined not more than $2,000,000 and punished by imprisonment for life.

`(d) Definition- As used in this section, the term `aircraft' has the definition set forth in section 40102(a)(6) of title 49.

`Sec. 276. Radiological dispersal devices

`(a) Unlawful Conduct-

`(1) In general- Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly produce, construct, otherwise acquire, transfer directly or indirectly, receive, possess, import, export, or use, or possess and threaten to use--

`(A) any weapon that is designed or intended to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life; or

`(B) any device or other object that is capable of and designed or intended to endanger human life through the release of radiation or radioactivity.

`(2) Exception- This subsection does not apply with respect to--

`(A) conduct by or under the authority of the United States or any department or agency thereof; or

`(B) conduct pursuant to the terms of a contract with the United States or any department or agency thereof.

`(b) Jurisdiction- Conduct prohibited by subsection (a) is within the jurisdiction of the United States if--

`(1) the offense occurs in or affects interstate or foreign commerce;

`(2) the offense occurs outside of the United States and is committed by a national of the United States;

`(3) the offense is committed against a national of the United States while the national is outside the United States;

`(c) Criminal Penalties-

`(1) In general- Whoever violates, or attempts or conspires to violate, subsection (a) shall be fined not more than $2,000,000 and shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment not less than 25 years or to imprisonment for life.

`(3) Special circumstances- If the death of another results from a person's violation of subsection (a), the person shall be fined not more than $2,000,000 and punished by imprisonment for life.

`Sec. 277. Harboring or concealing terrorists

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever harbors or conceals any person who he knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe, has committed, or is about to commit, an offense under section 1301 (relating to destruction of aircraft or aircraft facilities), section 621 (relating to biological weapons), section 631 (relating to chemical weapons), section 601 (relating to nuclear materials), paragraph (2) or (3) of section 614(f) (relating to arson and bombing of government property risking or causing injury or death), section 1205(a) (relating to the destruction of an energy facility), section 13.AF404.51 (relating to violence against maritime navigation), section 271 (relating to weapons of mass destruction), or section 273 (relating to acts of terrorism transcending national boundaries) of this title, section 236(a) (relating to sabotage of nuclear facilities or fuel) of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2284(a)), or section 46502 (relating to aircraft piracy) of title 49, shall imprisoned not more than ten years.

`(b) VENUE- A violation of this section may be prosecuted in any Federal judicial district in which the underlying offense was committed, or in any other Federal judicial district as provided by law.

`Sec. 278. Providing material support to terrorists

`(a) Offense- Whoever provides material support or resources or conceals or disguises the nature, location, source, or ownership of material support or resources, knowing or intending that they are to be used in preparation for, or in carrying out, a violation of section 271, 273, 276, 1301, 1306, 571, 621, 631, 102, 112, 121(m) or (n), 601, 1201, 1202, 1203, 1205, 1331, 1651, 1291, 278, or 279 of this title, section 236 of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954 (42 U.S.C. 2284) section 46502 or 60123(b) of title 49, or any offense listed in section 273(g)(5)(B) (except for sections 278 and 279) or in preparation for, or in carrying out, the concealment of an escape from the commission of any such violation, or attempts or conspires to do such an act, shall be fined under this title, imprisoned not more than 15 years, or both. A violation of this section may be prosecuted in any Federal judicial district in which the underlying offense was committed, or in any other Federal judicial district as provided by law, and, if the death of any person results, shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`(b) Definitions- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `material support or resources' means any property, tangible or intangible, or service, including currency or monetary instruments or financial securities, financial services, lodging, training, expert advice or assistance, safehouses, false documentation or identification, communications equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, personnel (1 or more individuals who may be or include oneself), and transportation, except medicine or religious materials;

`(2) the term `training' means instruction or teaching designed to impart a specific skill, as opposed to general knowledge; and

`(3) the term `expert advice or assistance' means advice or assistance derived from scientific, technical or other specialized knowledge.

`Sec. 279. Providing material support or resources to designated foreign terrorist organizations

`(a) Prohibited Activities-

`(1) Unlawful conduct- Whoever as made applicable by subsection (d) knowingly provides material support or resources to a foreign terrorist organization, or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years, or both, and if the death of any person results, shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life. To violate this paragraph, a person must have knowledge that the organization is a designated terrorist organization (as defined in subsection (g)(6)), that the organization has engaged or engages in terrorist activity (as defined in section 212(a)(3)(B) of the Immigration and Nationality Act), or that the organization has engaged or engages in terrorism (as defined in section 140(d)(2) of the Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years 1988 and 1989).

`(2) Financial institutions- Except as authorized by the Secretary, any financial institution that becomes aware that it has possession of, or control over, any funds in which a foreign terrorist organization, or its agent, has an interest, shall--

`(A) retain possession of, or maintain control over, such funds; and

`(B) report to the Secretary the existence of such funds in accordance with regulations issued by the Secretary.

`(b) Civil Penalty- Any financial institution that knowingly fails to comply with subsection (a)(2) shall be subject to a civil penalty in an amount that is the greater of--

`(A) $50,000 per violation; or

`(B) twice the amount of which the financial institution was required under subsection (a)(2) to retain possession or control.

`(c) Injunction- Whenever it appears to the Secretary or the Attorney General that any person is engaged in, or is about to engage in, any act that constitutes, or would constitute, a violation of this section, the Attorney General may initiate civil action in a district court of the United States to enjoin such violation.

`(d) Federal Nexus- Subsection (a) applies if--

`(1) an offender is a national of the United States or an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States (as defined in section 101(a)(20) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(20)));

`(2) an offender is a stateless person whose habitual residence is in the United States;

`(3) after the conduct required for the offense occurs, an offender is brought into or found in the United States, even if the conduct required for the offense occurs outside the United States;

`(4) the offense occurs in whole or in part within the United States;

`(5) the offense occurs in or affects interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(6) an offender aids or abets any person over whom jurisdiction exists under this paragraph in committing an offense under subsection (a) or conspires with any person over whom jurisdiction exists under this paragraph to commit an offense under subsection (a).

`(e) Investigations-

`(1) In general- The Attorney General shall conduct any investigation of a possible violation of this section, or of any license, order, or regulation issued pursuant to this section.

`(2) Coordination with the department of the treasury- The Attorney General shall work in coordination with the Secretary in investigations relating to--

`(A) the compliance or noncompliance by a financial institution with the requirements of subsection (a)(2); and

`(B) civil penalty proceedings authorized under subsection (b).

`(3) Referral- Any evidence of a criminal violation of this section arising in the course of an investigation by the Secretary or any other Federal agency shall be referred immediately to the Attorney General for further investigation. The Attorney General shall timely notify the Secretary of any action taken on referrals from the Secretary, and may refer investigations to the Secretary for remedial licensing or civil penalty action.

`(f) Classified Information in Civil Proceedings Brought by the United States-

`(1) Discovery of classified information by defendants-

`(A) Request by United States- In any civil proceeding under this section, upon request made ex parte and in writing by the United States, a court, upon a sufficient showing, may authorize the United States to--

`(i) redact specified items of classified information from documents to be introduced into evidence or made available to the defendant through discovery under the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure;

`(ii) substitute a summary of the information for such classified documents; or

`(iii) substitute a statement admitting relevant facts that the classified information would tend to prove.

`(B) Order granting request- If the court enters an order granting a request under this paragraph, the entire text of the documents to which the request relates shall be sealed and preserved in the records of thecourt to be made available to the appellate court in the event of an appeal.

`(C) Denial of request- If the court enters an order denying a request of the United States under this paragraph, the United States may take an immediate, interlocutory appeal in accordance with paragraph (5). For purposes of such an appeal, the entire text of the documents to which the request relates, together with any transcripts of arguments made ex parte to the court in connection therewith, shall be maintained under seal and delivered to the appellate court.

`(2) Introduction of classified information; precautions by court-

`(A) Exhibits- To prevent unnecessary or inadvertent disclosure of classified information in a civil proceeding brought by the United States under this section, the United States may petition the court ex parte to admit, in lieu of classified writings, recordings, or photographs, one or more of the following:

`(i) Copies of items from which classified information has been redacted.

`(ii) Stipulations admitting relevant facts that specific classified information would tend to prove.

`(iii) A declassified summary of the specific classified information.

`(B) Determination by court- The court shall grant a request under this paragraph if the court finds that the redacted item, stipulation, or summary is sufficient to allow the defendant to prepare a defense.

`(3) Taking of trial testimony-

`(A) Objection- During the examination of a witness in any civil proceeding brought by the United States under this subsection, the United States may object to any question or line of inquiry that may require the witness to disclose classified information not previously found to be admissible.

`(B) Action by court- In determining whether a response is admissible, the court shall take precautions to guard against the compromise of any classified information, including--

`(i) permitting the United States to provide the court, ex parte, with a proffer of the witness's response to the question or line of inquiry; and

`(ii) requiring the defendant to provide the court with a proffer of the nature of the information that the defendant seeks to elicit.

`(C) Obligation of defendant- In any civil proceeding under this section, it shall be the defendant's obligation to establish the relevance and materiality of any classified information sought to be introduced.

`(4) Appeal- If the court enters an order denying a request of the United States under this subsection, the United States may take an immediate interlocutory appeal in accordance with paragraph (5).

`(5) Interlocutory appeal-

`(A) Subject of appeal- An interlocutory appeal by the United States shall lie to a court of appeals from a decision or order of a district court--

`(i) authorizing the disclosure of classified information;

`(ii) imposing sanctions for nondisclosure of classified information; or

`(iii) refusing a protective order sought by the United States to prevent the disclosure of classified information.

`(B) Expedited consideration-

`(i) In general- An appeal taken pursuant to this paragraph, either before or during trial, shall be expedited by the court of appeals.

`(ii) Appeals prior to trial- If an appeal is of an order made prior to trial, an appeal shall be taken not later than 10 days after the decision or order appealed from, and the trial shall not commence until the appeal is resolved.

`(iii) Appeals during trial- If an appeal is taken during trial, the trial court shall adjourn the trial until the appeal is resolved, and the court of appeals--

`(I) shall hear argument on such appeal not later than 4 days after the adjournment of the trial;

`(II) may dispense with written briefs other than the supporting materials previously submitted to the trial court;

`(III) shall render its decision not later than 4 days after argument on appeal; and

`(IV) may dispense with the issuance of a written opinion in rendering its decision.

`(C) Effect of ruling- An interlocutory appeal and decision shall not affect the right of the defendant, in a subsequent appeal from a final judgment, to claim as error reversal by the trial court on remand of a ruling appealed from during trial.

`(6) Construction- Nothing in this subsection shall prevent the United States from seeking protective orders or asserting privileges ordinarily available to the United States to protect against the disclosure of classified information, including the invocation of the military and State secrets privilege.

`(g) Definitions- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `classified information' has the meaning given that term in section 1(a) of the Classified Information Procedures Act (18 U.S.C. App.);

`(2) the term `funds' includes coin or currency of the United States or any other country, traveler's checks, personal checks, bank checks, money orders, stocks, bonds, debentures, drafts, letters of credit, any other negotiable instrument, and any electronic representation of any of the foregoing;

`(3) the term `material support or resources' has the same meaning given that term in section 2339A (including the definitions of `training' and `expert advice or assistance' in that section);

`(4) the term `Secretary' means the Secretary of the Treasury; and

`(6) the term `terrorist organization' means an organization designated as a terrorist organization under section 219 of the Immigration and Nationality Act.

`(h) Provision of Personnel- No person may be prosecuted under this section in connection with the term `personnel' unless that person has knowingly provided, attempted to provide, or conspired to provide a foreign terrorist organization with 1 or more individuals (who may be or include himself) to work under that terrorist organization's direction or control or to organize, manage, supervise, or otherwise direct the operation of that organization. Individuals who act entirely independently of the foreign terrorist organization to advance its goals or objectives shall not be considered to be working under the foreign terrorist organization's direction and control.

`(i) Rule of Construction- Nothing in this section shall be construed or applied so as to abridge the exercise of rights guaranteed under the First Amendment to the Constitution of the United States.

`(j) Exception- No person may be prosecuted under this section in connection with the term `personnel', `training', or `expert advice or assistance' if the provision of that material support or resources to a foreign terrorist organization was approved by the Secretary of State with the concurrence of the Attorney General. The Secretary of State may not approve the provision of any material support that may be used to carry out terrorist activity (as defined in section 212(a)(3)(B)(iii) of the Immigration and Nationality Act).

`Sec. 280. Prohibitions against the financing of terrorism

`(a) Offenses-

`(1) In general- Whoever, in a circumstance described in subsection (b), by any means, directly or indirectly, unlawfully and knowingly provides or collects funds with the intention that such funds be used, or with the knowledge that such funds are to be used, in full or in part, in order to carry out--

`(A) an act which constitutes an offense within the scope of a treaty specified in subsection (e)(7), as implemented by the United States, or

`(B) any other act intended to cause death or serious bodily injury to a civilian, or to any other person not taking an active part in the hostilities in a situation of armed conflict, when the purpose of such act, by its nature or context, is to intimidate a population, or to compel a government or an international organization to do or to abstain from doing any act,

shall be punished as prescribed in subsection (d)(1).

`(2) Attempts and conspiracies- Whoever attempts or conspires to commit an offense under paragraph (1) shall be punished as prescribed in subsection (d)(1).

`(3) Relationship to predicate act- For an act to constitute an offense set forth in this subsection, it shall not be necessary that the funds were actually used to carry out a predicate act.

`(b) Jurisdiction- There is jurisdiction over the offenses in subsection (a) in the following circumstances--

`(1) the offense takes place in the United States and--

`(A) a perpetrator was a national of another state or a stateless person;

`(B) on board a vessel flying the flag of another state or an aircraft which is registered under the laws of another state at the time the offense is committed;

`(C) on board an aircraft which is operated by the government of another state;

`(D) a perpetrator is found outside the United States;

`(E) was directed toward or resulted in the carrying out of a predicate act against--

`(i) a national of another state; or

`(ii) another state or a government facility of such state, including its embassy or other diplomatic or consular premises of that state;

`(F) was directed toward or resulted in the carrying out of a predicate act committed in an attempt to compel another state or international organization to do or abstain from doing any act; or

`(G) was directed toward or resulted in the carrying out of a predicate act--

`(i) outside the United States; or

`(ii) within the United States, and either the offense or the predicate act was conducted in, or the results thereof affected, interstate or foreign commerce;

`(2) the offense takes place outside the United States and--

`(A) a perpetrator is a national of the United States or is a stateless person whose habitual residence is in the United States;

`(B) a perpetrator is found in the United States; or

`(C) was directed toward or resulted in the carrying out of a predicate act against--

`(i) any property that is owned, leased, or used by the United States or by any department or agency of the United States, including an embassy or other diplomatic or consular premises of the United States;

`(ii) any person or property within the United States;

`(iii) any national of the United States or the property of such national; or

`(iv) any property of any legal entity organized under the laws of the United States, including any of its States, districts, commonwealths, territories, or possessions;

`(3) the offense is committed on board a vessel flying the flag of the United States or an aircraft which is registered under the laws of the United States at the time the offense is committed;

`(4) the offense is committed on board an aircraft which is operated by the United States; or

`(5) the offense was directed toward or resulted in the carrying out of a predicate act committed in an attempt to compel the United States to do or abstain from doing any act.

`(c) Concealment- Whoever--

`(1)(A) is in the United States; or

`(B) is outside the United States and is a national of the United States or a legal entity organized under the laws of the United States (including any of its States, districts, commonwealths, territories, or possessions); and

`(2) knowingly conceals or disguises the nature, location, source, ownership, or control of any material support or resources, or any funds or proceeds of such funds--

`(A) knowing or intending that the support or resources are to be provided, or knowing that the support or resources were provided, in violation of section 2339B of this title; or

`(B) knowing or intending that any such funds are to be provided or collected, or knowing that the funds were provided or collected, in violation of subsection (a),

shall be punished as prescribed in subsection (d)(2).

`(d) Penalties-

`(1) Subsection (a)- Whoever violates subsection (a) shall be imprisoned for not more than 20 years.

`(2) Subsection (c)- Whoever violates subsection (c) shall be imprisoned for not more than 10 years.

`(e) Definitions- In this section--

`(1) the term `funds' means assets of every kind, whether tangible or intangible, movable or immovable, however acquired, and legal documents or instruments in any form, including electronic or digital, evidencing title to, or interest in, such assets, including coin, currency, bank credits, travelers checks, bank checks, money orders, shares, securities, bonds, drafts, and letters of credit;

`(2) the term `government facility' means any permanent or temporary facility or conveyance that is used or occupied by representatives of a state, members of a government, the legislature, or the judiciary, or by officials or employees of a state or any other public authority or entity or by employees or officials of an intergovernmental organization in connection with their official duties;

`(3) the term `proceeds' means any funds derived from or obtained, directly or indirectly, through the commission of an offense set forth in subsection (a);

`(4) the term `provides' includes giving, donating, and transmitting;

`(5) the term `collects' includes raising and receiving;

`(6) the term `predicate act' means any act referred to in subparagraph (A) or (B) of subsection (a)(1);

`(7) the term `treaty' means--

`(A) the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft, done at The Hague on December 16, 1970;

`(B) the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Civil Aviation, done at Montreal on September 23, 1971;

`(C) the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of Crimes against Internationally Protected Persons, including Diplomatic Agents, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 14, 1973;

`(D) the International Convention against the Taking of Hostages, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 17, 1979;

`(E) the Convention on the Physical Protection of Nuclear Material, adopted at Vienna on March 3, 1980;

`(F) the Protocol for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts of Violence at Airports Serving International Civil Aviation, supplementary to the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Civil Aviation, done at Montreal on February 24, 1988;

`(G) the Convention for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Maritime Navigation, done at Rome on March 10, 1988;

`(H) the Protocol for the Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Fixed Platforms located on the Continental Shelf, done at Rome on March 10, 1988; or

`(I) the International Convention for the Suppression of Terrorist Bombings, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations on December 15, 1997;

`(8) the term `intergovernmental organization' includes international organizations;

`(9) the term `international organization' has the same meaning as in section 136;

`(10) the term `armed conflict' does not include internal disturbances and tensions, such as riots, isolated and sporadic acts of violence, and other acts of a similar nature;

`(11) the term `material support or resources' has the same meaning given that term in section 2339B(g)(4) of this title; and

`(12) the term `state' has the same meaning as that term has under international law, and includes all political subdivisions thereof.

`(f) Civil Penalty- In addition to any other criminal, civil, or administrative liability or penalty, any legal entity located within the United States or organized under the laws of the United States, including any of the laws of its States, districts, commonwealths, territories, or possessions, shall be liable to the United States for the sum of at least $10,000, if a person responsible for the management or control of that legal entity has, in that capacity, committed an offense set forth in subsection (a).

`Sec. 281. Receiving military-type training from a foreign terrorist organization

`(a) Offense- Whoever, if a circumstance exists that is described in section 279(d), knowingly receives military-type training from or on behalf of any organization designated at the time of the training by the Secretary of State under section 219(a)(1) of the Immigration and Nationality Act as a foreign terrorist organization shall be imprisoned for ten years. To violate this subsection, a person must have knowledge that the organization is a designated terrorist organization (as defined in subsection (c)(4)), that the organization has engaged or engages in terrorist activity (as defined in section 212 of the Immigration and Nationality Act), or that the organization has engaged or engages in terrorism (as defined in section 140(d)(2) of the Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years 1988 and 1989).

`(b) Definitions- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `military-type training' includes training in means or methods that can cause death or serious bodily injury, destroy or damage property, or disrupt services to critical infrastructure, or training on the use, storage, production, or assembly of any explosive, firearm or other weapon, including any weapon of mass destruction (as defined in section 2232a(c)(2));

`(2) the term `critical infrastructure' means systems and assets vital to national defense, national security, economic security, public health or safety including both regional and national infrastructure. Critical infrastructure may be publicly or privately owned; examples of critical infrastructure include gas and oil production, storage, or delivery systems, water supply systems, telecommunications networks, electrical power generation or delivery systems, financing and banking systems, emergency services (including medical, police, fire, and rescue services), and transportation systems and services (including highways, mass transit, airlines, and airports); and

`(3) the term `foreign terrorist organization' means an organization designated as a terrorist organization under section 219(a)(1) of the Immigration and Nationality Act.

`Sec. 282. Civil remedies

`(a) Action and Jurisdiction- Any national of the United States who suffers any loss by reason of an act of international terrorism, or the estate, survivors, or heirs of that national, may in a civil action in any appropriate district court of the United States recover threefold the damages sustained and the cost of the suit, including attorney's fees.

`(b) Estoppel Under United States Law- A final judgment or decree rendered in favor of the United States in any criminal proceeding under section 102, 111, 112, 121, or 123 of this title or section 46314, 46502, 46505, or 46506 of title 49 shall estop the defendant from denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense in any subsequent civil proceeding under this section.

`(c) Estoppel Under Foreign Law- A final judgment or decree rendered in favor of any foreign state in any criminal proceeding shall, to the extent that such judgment or decree may be accorded full faith and credit under the law of the United States, estop the defendant from denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense in any subsequent civil proceeding under this section.

`(d) General Venue- A civil action under this section may be instituted the United States district court for any district where any plaintiff resides or where any defendant resides or is served, or has an agent. Process in such a civil action may be served in any district where the defendant resides, is found, or has an agent.

`(e) Special Maritime or Territorial Jurisdiction- If the actions giving rise to the claim occurred within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, then a civil action under this section may be instituted in the United States district court for any district in which any plaintiff resides or the defendant resides, is served, or has an agent.

`(f) Service on Witnesses- A witness in a civil action brought under this section may be served in any other district where the defendant resides, is found, or has an agent.

`(g) Convenience of the Forum- The district court shall not dismiss any action brought under this section on the grounds of the inconvenience or inappropriateness of the forum chosen, unless--

`(1) the action may be maintained in a foreign court that has jurisdiction over the subject matter and over all the defendants;

`(2) that foreign court is significantly more convenient and appropriate; and

`(3) that foreign court offers a remedy which is substantially the same as the one available in the courts of the United States.

`(h) Statute of Limitations-

`(1) Subject to subsection (b), a civil action under this section shall not be maintained unless commenced within 4 years after the date the cause of action accrued.

`(2) The time of the absence of the defendant from the United States or from any jurisdiction in which the same or a similar action arising from the same facts may be maintained by the plaintiff, or of any concealment of the defendant's whereabouts, shall not be included in the 4-year period set forth in paragraph (1).

`(i) Acts of War- No action shall be maintained under this section of this title for injury or loss by reason of an act of war.

`(j) Limitation on Discovery- If a party to an action under this section seeks to discover the investigative files of the Department of Justice, the Assistant Attorney General, Deputy Attorney General, or Attorney General may object on the ground that compliance will interfere with a criminal investigation or prosecution of the incident, or a national security operation related to the incident, which is the subject of the civil litigation. The court shall evaluate any such objections in camera and shall stay the discovery if the court finds that granting the discovery request will substantially interfere with a criminal investigation or prosecution of the incident or a national security operation related to the incident. The court shall consider the likelihood of criminal prosecution by the Government and other factors it deems to be appropriate. A stay of discovery under this subsection shall constitute a bar to the granting of a motion to dismiss under rules 12(b)(6) and 56 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure. If the court grants a stay of discovery under this subsection, it may stay the action in the interests of justice.

`(k) Stay of Action for Civil Remedies-

`(1) The Attorney General may intervene in any civil action brought under this section for the purpose of seeking a stay of the civil action. A stay shall be granted if the court finds that the continuation of the civil action will substantially interfere with a criminal prosecution which involves the same subject matter and in which an indictment has been returned, or interfere with national security operations related to the terrorist incident that is the subject of the civil action. A stay may be granted for up to 6 months. The Attorney General may petition the court for an extension of the stay for additional 6-month periods until the criminal prosecution is completed or dismissed.

`(2) In a proceeding under this subsection, the Attorney General may request that any order issued by the court for release to the parties and the public omit any reference to the basis on which the stay was sought.

`(l) SUITS AGAINST GOVERNMENTS- No action shall be maintained under this section against--

`(1) the United States, an agency of the United States, or an officer or employee of the United States or any agency thereof acting within his or her official capacity or under color of legal authority; or

`(2) a foreign state, an agency of a foreign state, or an officer or employee of a foreign state or an agency thereof acting within his or her official capacity or under color of legal authority.

`(m) EXCLUSIVE JURISDICTION- The district courts of the United States shall have exclusive original jurisdiction over an action brought under this section.

`Sec. 283. Definitions for subchapter

`As used in this subchapter--

`(1) the term `international terrorism' means activities that--

`(A) involve violent acts or acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of the criminal laws of the United States or of any State, or that would be a criminal violation if committed within the jurisdiction of the United States or of any State;

`(B) appear to be intended--

`(i) to intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

`(ii) to influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion; or

`(iii) to affect the conduct of a government by mass destruction, assassination, or kidnapping; and

`(C) occur primarily outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States, or transcend national boundaries in terms of the means by which they are accomplished, the persons they appear intended to intimidate or coerce, or the locale in which their perpetrators operate or seek asylum;

`(3) the term `person' means any individual or entity capable of holding a legal or beneficial interest in property;

`(4) the term `act of war' means any act occurring in the course of--

`(A) declared war;

`(B) armed conflict, whether or not war has been declared, between two or more nations; or

`(C) armed conflict between military forces of any origin; and

`(5) the term `domestic terrorism' means activities that--

`(A) involve acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of the criminal laws of the United States or of any State;

`(B) appear to be intended--

`(i) to intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

`(ii) to influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion; or

`(iii) to affect the conduct of a government by mass destruction, assassination, or kidnapping; and

`(C) occur primarily within the territorial jurisdiction of the United States.

`SUBCHAPTER C--MILITARY AND NAVY

`Sec.

`291. Entering military, naval, or Coast Guard property.

`292. Use of Army and Air Force as posse comitatus.

`293. Prohibition on disruptions of funerals of members or former members of the Armed Forces.

`294. Demonstrations at cemeteries under the control of the National Cemetery Administration and at Arlington National Cemetery.

`Sec. 291. Entering military, naval, or Coast Guard property

`Whoever--

`(1) within the jurisdiction of the United States, goes upon any military, naval, or Coast Guard reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, for any purpose prohibited by law or lawful regulation; or

`(2) reenters or is found within any such reservation, post, fort, arsenal, yard, station, or installation, after having been removed therefrom or ordered not to reenter by any officer or person in command or charge thereof;

shall be or imprisoned not more than six months.

`Sec. 292. Use of Army and Air Force as posse comitatus

`Whoever, except in cases and under circumstances expressly authorized by the Constitution or Act of Congress, knowingly uses any part of the Army or the Air Force as a posse comitatus or otherwise to execute the laws shall be imprisoned not more than two years.

`Sec. 293. Prohibition on disruptions of funerals of members or former members of the Armed Forces

`(a) Prohibition- For any funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces that is not located at a cemetery under the control of the National Cemetery Administration or part of Arlington National Cemetery, it shall be unlawful for any person to engage in an activity during the period beginning 60 minutes before and ending 60 minutes after such funeral, any part of which activity--

`(1)(A) takes place within the boundaries of the location of such funeral or takes place within 150 feet of the point of the intersection between--

`(i) the boundary of the location of such funeral; and

`(ii) a road, pathway, or other route of ingress to or egress from the location of such funeral; and

`(B) includes any individual willfully making or assisting in the making of any noise or diversion that is not part of such funeral and that disturbs or tends to disturb the peace or good order of such funeral with the intent of disturbing the peace or good order of that funeral; or

`(2)(A) is within 300 feet of the boundary of the location of such funeral; and

`(B) includes any individual willfully and without proper authorization impeding the access to or egress from such location with the intent to impede the access to or egress from such location.

`(b) Penalty- Any person who violates subsection (a) shall be fined under this title, imprisoned for not more than 1 year, or both.

`(c) Definitions- In this section:

`(1) The term `Armed Forces' has the meaning given the term in section 101 of title 10.

`(2) The term `funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces' means any ceremony or memorial service held in connection with the burial or cremation of a member or former member of the Armed Forces.

`(3) The term `boundary of the location', with respect to a funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces, means--

`(A) in the case of a funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces that is held at a cemetery, the property line of the cemetery;

`(B) in the case of a funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces that is held at a mortuary, the property line of the mortuary;

`(C) in the case of a funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces that is held at a house of worship, the property line of the house of worship; and

`(D) in the case of a funeral of a member or former member of the Armed Forces that is held at any other kind of location, the reasonable property line of that location.

`Sec. 294. Demonstrations at cemeteries under the control of the National Cemetery Administration and at Arlington National Cemetery

`Whoever violates section 2413 of title 38 shall be fined under this title, imprisoned for not more than one year, or both.

`SUBCHAPTER D--CIVIL DISORDERS AND RIOTS

`Sec.

`296. Civil disorders.

`Sec. 296. Civil disorders

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever--

`(1) teaches or demonstrates to any other person the use, application, or making of any firearm or explosive or incendiary device, or technique capable of causing injury or death to persons, knowing or having reason to know or intending that the same will be unlawfully employed for use in, or in furtherance of, a civil disorder which is in or affects interstate or foreign commerce or the performance of any federally protected function;

`(2) transports or manufactures for transportation in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce any firearm or explosive or incendiary device, knowing or having reason to know or intending that the same will be used unlawfully in furtherance of a civil disorder; or

`(3) commits or attempts to commit any act to obstruct, impede, or interfere with any fireman or law enforcement officer lawfully engaged in the lawful performance of official duties incident to and during the commission of a civil disorder which is in or affects commerce or the conduct or performance of any federally protected function;

shall be imprisoned not more than five years.

`(b) LAW ENFORCMENT EXCLUSION- Nothing in this section makes unlawful any act of any law enforcement officer which is performed in the lawful performance of official duties.

`(c) DEFINTIONS- The following definitions apply in this section:

`(1) The term `civil disorder' means any public disturbance involving acts of violence by assemblages of three or more persons, which causes an immediate danger of or results in damage or injury to the property or person of any other individual.

`(2) The term `federally protected function' means any function, operation, or action carried out, under the laws of the United States, by any department, agency, or instrumentality of the United States or by an officer or employee thereof; and such term includes the collection and distribution of the United States mails.

`(3) The term `firearm' means any weapon which is designed to or may readily be converted to expel any projectile by the action of an explosive; or the frame or receiver of any such weapon.

`(4) The term `explosive or incendiary device' means--

`(A) dynamite and all other forms of high explosives;

`(B) any explosive bomb, grenade, missile, or similar device; and

`(C) any incendiary bomb or grenade, fire bomb, or similar device, including any device which--

`(i) consists of or includes a breakable container including a flammable liquid or compound, and a wick composed of any material which, when ignited, is capable of igniting such flammable liquid or compound; and

`(ii) can be carried or thrown by one individual acting alone.

`(5) The term `fireman' means any member of a fire department (including a volunteer fire department) of any State, any political subdivision of a State.

`(6) The term `law enforcement officer' means any officer or employee of the United States, of any State or any political subdivision of a State while engaged in the enforcement or prosecution of any of the criminal laws of the United States or of that State or subdivision; and such term includes members of the National Guard (as defined in section 101 of title 10), members of the organized militia of a State (as defined in section 101 of title 10), and members of the Armed Forces of the United States, while engaged in suppressing acts of violence or restoring law and order during a civil disorder.

`(d) NON-PREMPTION- Nothing in this section shall be construed as indicating an intent on the part of Congress to occupy the field in which any provisions of the section operate to the exclusion of State or local laws on the same subject matter, nor shall any provision of this section be construed to invalidate any provision of State law unless such provision is inconsistent with any of the purposes of this section or any provision thereof.

`SUBCHAPTER E--ESPIONAGE AND CENSORSHIP

`Sec.

`301. General provisions for subchapter.

`302. Gathering or transmitting defense information.

`303. Losing defense information.

`304. Disclosure of classified and other similarly protected information.

`Sec. 301. General provisions for subchapter

`(a) Definition- In this subchapter, the term `foreign power' has the meaning given that term in section 101(a) of the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act of 1978 (50 U.S.C. 1801(a)).

`(b) Exclusion Relating to Lawful Demands of Congress- Nothing in this subchapter prohibits the furnishing, upon lawful demand, of information to any regularly constituted committee of the Senate or House of Representatives of the United States of America, or joint committee thereof.

`Sec. 302. Gathering or transmitting defense information

`Whoever, with intent or reason to believe that the information will be used to the injury of the United States, or to the advantage of any foreign power, knowingly--

`(1) obtains information connected with the national defense; or

`(2) provides information connected with the national defense to any person not entitled to receive it;

or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned for life or for any term of years, and if death results, shall be subject to the death penalty.

`Sec. 303. Losing defense information

`Whoever, or having lawful possession or control of any information connected with the national defense--

`(1) recklessly permits that information to be lost, stolen, or destroyed; or

`(2) knowing that the information has been lost, or stolen, or destroyed, fails to make prompt report of that fact to an appropriate superior officer;

shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than 20 years, or both.

`Sec. 304. Disclosure of classified and other similarly protected information

`(a) Offense- Whoever knowingly provides protected information to a person not entitled to receive it, or knowingly uses protected information to the injury of the United States, or to the advantage of any foreign power, or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than 20 years, or both.

`(b) Definitions- In this section--

`(1) the term `protected information' means any classified information or any Restricted Data (as defined for the purposes of the Atomic Energy Act of 1954);

`(2) the term `classified information' means information which, at the time of a violation of this section, is, for reasons of national security, specifically designated by a United States Government authority for limited or restricted dissemination or distribution--

`(A) concerning the nature, preparation, or use of any code, cipher, or cryptographic system of the United States or any foreign power;

`(B) concerning the design, construction, use, maintenance, or repair of any device, apparatus, or appliance used or prepared or planned for use by the United States or any foreign power for cryptographic or communication intelligence purposes;

`(C) concerning the communication intelligence activities of the United States or any foreign power; or

`(D) obtained by the processes of communication intelligence from the communications of any foreign power, knowing the same to have been obtained by such processes; and

`(3) the terms `code', `cipher', and `cryptographic system' include any method of secret writing and any mechanical or electrical device or method used for the purpose of disguising or concealing the contents, significance, or meanings of communications.

`SUBCHAPTER F--IMMIGRATION AND NATIONALITY

`Sec.

`311. False statement in application and use of passport.

`312. Forgery or false use of passport.

`313. Misuse of passport.

`314. Fraud and misuse of visas, permits, and other documents.

`315. Procurement of citizenship or naturalization unlawfully.

`316. Sale of naturalization or citizenship papers.

`317. Penalties related to removal.

`318. Bringing in and harboring certain aliens.

`319. Entry of alien at improper time or place; misrepresentation and concealment of facts.

`320. Reentry of removed alien.

`321. Aiding or assisting certain aliens to enter the United States.

`322. Increased penalty for certain terrorism related offenses.

`Sec. 311. False statement in application and use of passport

`Whoever--

`(1) knowingly makes any false statement in an application for passport with intent to induce or secure the issuance of a passport under the authority of the United States, either for his own use or the use of another, contrary to the laws regulating the issuance of passports or the rules prescribed pursuant to such laws; or

`(2) knowingly uses or attempts to use, or furnishes to another for use any passport the issue of which was secured in any way by reason of any false statement;

shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`Sec. 312. Forgery or false use of passport

`Whoever--

`(1) falsely makes, forges, counterfeits, mutilates, or alters any passport or instrument purporting to be a passport, with intent that the same may be used; or

`(2) knowingly uses, or attempts to use, or furnishes to another for use any such false, forged, counterfeited, mutilated, or altered passport or instrument purporting to be a passport, or any passport validly issued which has become void by the occurrence of any condition therein prescribed invalidating the same;

shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`Sec. 313. Misuse of passport

`Whoever--

`(1) knowingly uses, or attempts to use, any passport issued or designed for the use of another;

`(2) knowingly uses or attempts to use any passport in violation of the conditions or restrictions therein contained, or of the rules prescribed pursuant to the laws regulating the issuance of passports; or

`(3) knowingly furnishes, disposes of, or delivers a passport to any person, for use by another than the person for whose use it was originally issued and designed;

shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years (in the case of any other offense).

`Sec. 314. Fraud and misuse of visas, permits, and other documents

`(a) FORGERY AND SIMILAR CONDUCT- Whoever--

`(1) knowingly forges, counterfeits, alters, or falsely makes any immigrant or nonimmigrant visa, permit, border crossing card, alien registration receipt card, or other document prescribed by statute or regulation for entry into or as evidence of authorized stay or employment in the United States, or utters, uses, attempts to use, possesses, obtains, accepts, or receives any such visa, permit, border crossing card, alien registration receipt card, or other document prescribed by statute or regulation for entry into or as evidence of authorized stay or employment in the United States, knowing it to be forged, counterfeited, altered, or falsely made, or to have been procured by means of any false claim or statement, or to have been otherwise procured by fraud or unlawfully obtained;

`(2) except under direction of the Attorney General or the Secretary of Homeland Security, or other proper officer, knowingly possesses any blank permit, or engraves, sells, brings into the United States, or has in his control or possession any plate in the likeness of a plate designed for the printing of permits, or makes any print, photograph, or impression in the likeness of any immigrant or nonimmigrant visa, permit or other document required for entry into the United States, or has in his possession a distinctive paper which has been adopted by the Attorney General or Secretary of Homeland Security for the printing of such visas, permits, or documents;

`(3) when applying for an immigrant or nonimmigrant visa, permit, or other document required for entry into the United States, or for admission to the United States personates another, or falsely appears in the name of a deceased individual, or evades or attempts to evade the immigration laws by appearing under an assumed or fictitious name without disclosing his true identity, or sells or otherwise disposes of, or offers to sell or otherwise dispose of, or utters, such visa, permit, or other document, to any person not authorized by law to receive such document; or

`(4) knowingly makes under oath, or as permitted under penalty of perjury under section 1746 of title 28, knowingly subscribes as true, any false statement with respect to a material fact in any application, affidavit, or other document required by the immigration laws or regulations prescribed thereunder, or knowingly presents any such application, affidavit, or other document which contains any such false statement or which fails to contain any reasonable basis in law or fact;

`shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`(b) USE OF FORGED OF SIMILAR DOCUMENTS- Whoever uses--

`(1) an identification document, knowing or having reason to know that the document was not issued lawfully for the use of the possessor;

`(2) an identification document knowing (or having reason to know) that the document is false; or

`(3) a false attestation,

for the purpose of satisfying a requirement of section 274A(b) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`(c) EXCLUSION- This section does not prohibit any lawfully authorized investigative, protective, or intelligence activity of a law enforcement agency of the United States, a State, or a subdivision of a State, or of an intelligence agency of the United States, or any activity authorized under title V of the Organized Crime Control Act of 1970 (18 U.S.C. note prec. 3481).

`Sec. 315. Procurement of citizenship or naturalization unlawfully

`Whoever--

`(1) knowingly procures or attempts to procure, contrary to law, the naturalization of any person, or documentary or other evidence of naturalization or of citizenship; or

`(2) whether for himself or another person not entitled thereto, knowingly issues, procures or obtains or applies for or otherwise attempts to procure or obtain naturalization, or citizenship, or a declaration of intention to become a citizen, or a certificate of arrival or any certificate or evidence of nationalization or citizenship, documentary or otherwise, or duplicates or copies of any of the foregoing;

shall be imprisoned not more than 15 years.

`Sec. 316. Sale of naturalization or citizenship papers

`Whoever unlawfully sells or disposes of a declaration of intention to become a citizen, certificate of naturalization, certificate of citizenship or copies or duplicates or other documentary evidence of naturalization or citizenship, shall be imprisoned 15 years.

`Sec. 317. Penalties related to removal

`(a) PENALTY FOR FAILURE TO DEPART-

`(1) IN GENERAL- Any alien against whom a final order of removal is outstanding by reason of being a member of any of the classes described in section 237(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, who--

`(A) knowingly fails or refuses to depart from the United States within a period of 90 days from the date of the final order of removal under administrative processes, or if judicial review is had, then from the date of the final order of the court,

`(B) knowingly fails or refuses to make timely application in good faith for travel or other documents necessary to the alien's departure,

`(C) connives or conspires, or takes any other action, designed to prevent or hamper or with the purpose of preventing or hampering the alien's departure pursuant to such, or

`(D) knowingly fails or refuses to present himself or herself for removal at the time and place required by the Attorney General pursuant to such order,

shall be imprisoned not more than four years (or 10 years if the alien is a member of any of the classes described in paragraph (1)(E), (2), (3), or (4) of section 237(a) of the Immigration and Nationality Act).

`(2) EXCEPTION- It is not a violation of paragraph (1) to take any proper steps for the purpose of securing cancellation of or exemption from such order of removal or for the purpose of securing the alien's release from incarceration or custody.

`(3) SUSPENSION- The court may for good cause suspend the sentence of an alien under this subsection and order the alien's release under such conditions as the court may prescribe. In determining whether good cause has been shown to justify releasing the alien, the court shall take into account such factors as--

`(A) the age, health, and period of detention of the alien;

`(B) the effect of the alien's release upon the national security and public peace or safety;

`(C) the likelihood of the alien's resuming or following a course of conduct which made or would make the alien deportable;

`(D) the character of the efforts made by such alien himself and by representatives of the country or countries to which the alien's removal is directed to expedite the alien's departure from the United States;

`(E) the reason for the inability of the Government of the United States to secure passports, other travel documents, or removal facilities from the country or countries to which the alien has been ordered removed; and

`(F) the eligibility of the alien for discretionary relief under the immigration laws.

`(b) FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH TERMS OF RELEASE UNDER SUPERVISION- An alien who knowingly fails to comply with regulations or requirements issued pursuant to section 241(a)(3) of the Immigration and Nationality Act or knowingly give false information in response to an inquiry under such section shall be imprisoned for not more than one year.

`(c) PENALTIES RELATING TO VESSELS AND AIRCRAFT-

`(1) CIVIL PENALTIES-

`(A) FAILURE TO CARRY OUT CERTAIN ORDERS- If the Attorney General is satisfied that a person has violated subsection (d) or (e) of section 241 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, the person shall pay to the Commissioner the sum of $2,000 for each violation.

`(B) FAILURE TO REMOVE ALIEN STOWAWAYS- If the Attorney General is satisfied that a person has failed to remove an alien stowaway as required under section 241(d)(2) of the Immigration and Nationality Act, the person shall pay to the Commissioner the sum of $5,000 for each alien stowaway not removed.

`(C) NO COMPROMISE- The Attorney General may not compromise the amount of such penalty under this paragraph.

`(2) CLEARING VESSELS AND AIRCRAFT-

`(A) CLEARANCE BEFORE DECISION ON LIABILITY- A vessel or aircraft may be granted clearance before a decision on liability is made under paragraph (1) only if a bond approved by the Attorney General or an amount sufficient to pay the civil penalty is deposited with the Commissioner.

`(B) PROHIBITION ON CLEARANCE WHILE PENALTY UNPAID- A vessel or aircraft may not be granted clearance if a civil penalty imposed under paragraph (1) is not paid.

`(d) DISCONTINUING GRANTING VISAS TO NATIONALS OF COUNTRY DENYING OR DELAYING ACCEPTING ALIEN- On being notified by the Attorney General that the government of a foreign country denies or unreasonably delays accepting an alien who is a citizen, subject, national, or resident of that country after the Attorney General asks whether the government will accept the alien under this section, the Secretary of State shall order consular officers in that foreign country to discontinue granting immigrant visas or nonimmigrant visas, or both, to citizens, subjects, nationals, and residents of that country until the Attorney General notifies the Secretary that the country has accepted the alien.

`Sec. 318. Bringing in and harboring certain aliens

`(a) CRIMINAL PENALTIES- (1)(A) Whoever--

`(i) knowing that a person is an alien, brings to or attempts to bring to the United States in any manner whatsoever such person at a place other than a designated port of entry or place other than as designated by the Commissioner, regardless of whether such alien has received prior official authorization to come to, enter, or reside in the United States and regardless of any future official action which may be taken with respect to such alien;

`(ii) knowing or in reckless disregard of the fact that an alien has come to, entered, or remains in the United States in violation of law, transports, or moves or attempts to transport or move such alien within the United States by means of transportation or otherwise, in furtherance of such violation of law;

`(iii) knowing or in reckless disregard of the fact that an alien has come to, entered, or remains in the United States in violation of law, conceals, harbors, or shields from detection, or attempts to conceal, harbor, or shield from detection, such alien in any place, including any building or any means of transportation;

`(iv) encourages or induces an alien to come to, enter, or reside in the United States, knowing or in reckless disregard of the fact that such coming to, entry, or residence is or will be in violation of law; or

`(v) engages in any conspiracy to commit any of the preceding acts;

shall be punished as provided in subparagraph (B).

`(B) Whoever violates subparagraph (A) shall, for each alien in respect to whom such a violation occurs--

`(i) in the case of a violation of subparagraph (A)(i) or (v)(I) or in the case of a violation of subparagraph (A)(ii), (iii), or (iv) in which the offense was done for the purpose of commercial advantage or private financial gain, be imprisoned not more than 10 years;

`(ii) in the case of a violation of subparagraph (A) (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v)(II) be imprisoned not more than 5 years;

`(iii) in the case of a violation of subparagraph (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) during and in relation to which the person causes serious bodily injury to, or places in jeopardy the life of, any person, be imprisoned not more than 20 years; and

`(iv) in the case of a violation of subparagraph (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) resulting in the death of any person, be punished by death or imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`(2) Whoever, knowing or in reckless disregard of the fact that an alien has not received prior official authorization to come to, enter, or reside in the United States, brings to or attempts to bring to the United States in any manner whatsoever, such alien, regardless of any official action which may later be taken with respect to such alien shall, for each alien in respect to whom a violation of this paragraph occurs--

`(A) be imprisoned not more than one year; or

`(B) in the case of--

`(i) an offense committed with the intent or with reason to believe that the alien unlawfully brought into the United States will commit an offense against the United States or any State punishable by imprisonment for more than 1 year,

`(ii) an offense done for the purpose of commercial advantage or private financial gain, or

`(iii) an offense in which the alien is not upon arrival immediately brought and presented to an appropriate immigration officer at a designated port of entry,

be imprisoned not less than 5 nor more than 15 years.

`(3)(A) Whoever, during any 12-month period, knowingly hires for employment at least 10 individuals with actual knowledge that the individuals are aliens described in subparagraph (B) shall be imprisoned for not more than 5 years.

`(B) An alien described in this subparagraph is an alien who--

`(i) is an unauthorized alien (as defined in section 274A(h)(3)), and

`(ii) has been brought into the United States in violation of this subsection.

`(4) In the case of a person who has brought aliens into the United States in violation of this subsection, the sentence otherwise provided for may be increased by up to 10 years if--

`(A) the offense was part of an ongoing commercial organization or enterprise;

`(B) aliens were transported in groups of 10 or more; and

`(C)(i) aliens were transported in a manner that endangered their lives; or

`(ii) the aliens presented a life-threatening health risk to people in the United States.

`(b) AUTHORITY TO ARREST- No officer or person shall have authority to make any arrest for a violation of any provision of this section except officers and employees of the Service designated by the Attorney General, either individually or as a member of a class, and all other officers whose duty it is to enforce criminal laws.

`(c) AUDIOVISUALLY PRESERVED DEPOSITIONS- Notwithstanding any provision of the Federal Rules of Evidence, the videotaped (or otherwise audiovisually preserved) deposition of a witness to a violation of subsection (a) who has been deported or otherwise expelled from the United States, or is otherwise unable to testify, may be admitted into evidence in an action brought for that violation if the witness was available for cross examination and the deposition otherwise complies with the Federal Rules of Evidence.

`(d) OUTREACH PROGRAM- The Secretary of Homeland Security, in consultation with the Attorney General and the Secretary of State, as appropriate, shall develop and implement an outreach program to educate the public in the United States and abroad about the penalties for bringing in and harboring aliens in violation of this section.

`Sec. 319. Entry of alien at improper time or place; misrepresentation and concealment of facts

`(a) ENTRY- Any alien who--

`(1) enters or attempts to enter the United States at any time or place other than as designated by immigration officers;

`(2) eludes examination or inspection by immigration officers; or

`(3) attempts to enter or obtains entry to the United States by a knowingly false or misleading representation or the knowingly concealment of a material fact;

shall, for the first commission of any such offense, be imprisoned not more than 6 months, and, for a subsequent commission of any such offense, be imprisoned not more than 2 years.

`(b) APPREHENSION WHILE ENTERING- Any alien who is apprehended while entering (or attempting to enter) the United States at a time or place other than as designated by immigration officers shall be subject to a civil penalty of--

`(1) at least $50 and not more than $250 for each such entry (or attempted entry); or

`(2) twice the amount specified in paragraph (1) in the case of an alien who has been previously subject to a civil penalty under this subsection.

Civil penalties under this subsection are in addition to, and not in lieu of, any criminal or other civil penalties that may be imposed.

`(c) MARRIAGE- An individual who knowingly enters into a marriage for the purpose of evading any provision of the immigration laws shall be imprisoned for not more than 5 years.

`(d) COMMERCIAL ENTERPRISE- Whoever knowingly establishes a commercial enterprise for the purpose of evading any provision of the immigration laws shall be imprisoned for not more than 5 years.

`Sec. 320. Reentry of removed alien

`(a) OFFENSE- Subject to subsection (b), any alien who--

`(1) has been denied admission, excluded, deported, or removed or has departed the United States while an order of exclusion, deportation, or removal is outstanding; and

`(2) thereafter enters, attempts to enter, or is at any time found in, the United States, unless (A) prior to his reembarkation at a place outside the United States or his application for admission from foreign contiguous territory, the Attorney General has expressly consented to such alien's reapplying for admission; or (B) with respect to an alien previously denied admission and removed, unless such alien shall establish that he was not required to obtain such advance consent under this or any prior Act,

shall be imprisoned not more than 2 years.

`(b) INCREASED PENALTY- In the case of any alien violating subsection (a)--

`(1) whose removal was subsequent to a conviction for commission of three or more misdemeanors involving drugs, crimes against the person, or both, or a felony (other than an aggravated felony), such alien shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years;

`(2) whose removal was subsequent to a conviction for commission of an aggravated felony, such alien shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years;

`(3) who has been excluded from the United States pursuant to section 235(c) of the Immigration and Nationality Act because the alien was excludable under section 212(a)(3)(B) of such Act or who has been removed from the United States pursuant to title V of such Act, and who thereafter, without the permission of the Attorney General, enters the United States, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned for a period of 10 years, which sentence shall not run concurrently with any other sentence; or

`(4) who was removed from the United States pursuant to section 241(a)(4)(B) of such Act who thereafter, without the permission of the Attorney General, enters, attempts to enter, or is at any time found in, the United States (unless the Attorney General has expressly consented to such alien's reentry) shall be imprisoned for not more than 10 years.

For the purposes of this subsection, the term `removal' includes any agreement in which an alien stipulates to removal during (or not during) a criminal trial under either Federal or State law.

`(c) REENTRY- Any alien deported pursuant to section 242(h)(2) of the Immigration and Nationality Act who enters, attempts to enter, or is at any time found in, the United States (unless the Attorney General has expressly consented to such alien's reentry) shall be incarcerated for the remainder of the sentence of imprisonment which was pending at the time of deportation without any reduction for parole or supervised release. Such alien shall be subject to such other penalties relating to the reentry of deported aliens as may be available under this section or any other provision of law.

`(d) CHALLENGE OF VALIDITY OF ORDER- In a criminal proceeding under this section, an alien may not challenge the validity of the deportation order described in subsection (a)(1) or subsection (b) unless the alien demonstrates that--

`(1) the alien exhausted any administrative remedies that may have been available to seek relief against the order;

`(2) the deportation proceedings at which the order was issued improperly deprived the alien of the opportunity for judicial review; and

`(3) the entry of the order was fundamentally unfair.

`Sec. 321. Aiding or assisting certain aliens to enter the United States

`Whoever knowingly aids or assists any alien inadmissible under section 212(a)(2) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (insofar as an alien inadmissible under such section has been convicted of an aggravated felony) or 212(a)(3) of such Act (other than subparagraph (E) thereof) to enter the United States, or who connives or conspires with any person or persons to allow, procure, or permit any such alien to enter the United States, shall be or imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`Sec. 322. Increased penalty for certain terrorism related offenses

`Whoever violates this subchapter shall, if the maximum imprisonment for the offense is less but for this section, be imprisoned not more than 25 years if the offense was committed to facilitate an act of international terrorism (as defined in section 2331 of this title), and 20 years (if the offense was committed to facilitate a drug trafficking crime (as defined in section 592).

`CHAPTER 17--DRUG CRIMES

`Sec.

`401. Definitions for chapter.

`402. Basic offenses.

`403. Basic punishment structure.

`404. Offenses involving protected persons.

`405. Enhancement for offenses involving protected places.

`406. Maintaining drug-involved premises.

`407. Distribution in or near schools.

`408. Listed chemicals.

`409. Domestic regulatory offenses.

`410. Additional domestic regulatory offenses.

`411. Penalty for simple possession.

`412. Civil penalty for possession of small amounts of certain controlled substances.

`413. Continuing criminal enterprise.

`414. Drug paraphernalia.

`415. Proceedings to establish prior convictions.

`416. Anhydrous ammonia.

`417. Controlled substances import and export offenses.

`418. Prohibited acts related to foreign terrorist organizations or terrorist persons and groups

`Sec. 401. Definitions for chapter

`As used in this chapter--

`(1) a term defined for the purposes of the Controlled Substances Act has the same meaning in this chapter;

`(2) the term `large quantity of a major drug' means--

`(A) 1 kilogram or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

`(B) 5 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of--

`(i) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

`(ii) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

`(iii) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

`(iv) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in clauses (i) through (iii);

`(C) 50 grams or more of a mixture or substance described in subparagraph (B) which contains cocaine base;

`(D) 100 grams or more of phencyclidine (PCP) or 1 kilogram or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of phencyclidine (PCP);

`(E) 10 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);

`(F) 400 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl] propanamide or 100 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of any analogue of N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl] propanamide;

`(G) 1000 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marihuana, or 1,000 or more marihuana plants regardless of weight; or

`(H) 50 grams or more of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers or 500 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers;

`(3) the term `substantial quantity of a major drug' means--

`(A) 100 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

`(B) 500 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of--

`(i) coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

`(ii) cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

`(iii) ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

`(iv) any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in clauses (i) through (iii);

`(C) 5 grams or more of a mixture or substance described in subparagraph (B) which contains cocaine base;

`(D) 10 grams or more of phencyclidine (PCP) or 100 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of phencyclidine (PCP);

`(E) 1 gram or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD);

`(F) 40 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl] propanamide or 10 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of any analogue of N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl] propanamide;

`(G) 100 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marihuana, or 100 or more marihuana plants regardless of weight; or

`(H) 5 grams or more of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers or 50 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers;

`(4) the term `date rape drug' means gamma hydroxybutyric acid (including when scheduled as an approved drug product for purposes of section 3(a)(1)(B) of the Hillory J. Farias and Samantha Reid Date-Rape Drug Prohibition Act of 2000), or 1 gram of flunitrazepam;

`(5) the term `repeat offender' means a person is convicted under this chapter after a prior conviction for a felony drug offense;

`(6) the term `career offender' means a person is convicted under this chapter after two or more prior convictions for a felony drug offense;

`(7) the term `midlevel quantity of marijuana` means 50 kilograms of marijuana or more than 50 marijuana plants; and

`(8) the term `larger quantity of hashish' means ten kilograms of hashish or one kilogram of hashish oil.

`Sec. 402. Basic offenses

`Except as authorized by the Controlled Substances Act whoever knowingly--

`(1) manufactures, distributes, or dispenses, or possesses with intent to manufacture, distribute, or dispense, a controlled substance;

`(2) creates, distributes, or dispenses, or possesses with intent to distribute or dispense, a counterfeit substance;

`(3) imports or exports a controlled substance in violation of section 1002, 1003, or 1007 of the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act;

`(4) brings or possesses on board a vessel, aircraft, or vehicle a controlled substance in violation of section 1005 of that Act; or

`(5) manufactures, possesses with intent to distribute, or distributes a controlled substance contrary to section 1009 of that Act;

shall be punished as provided in this chapter.

`Sec. 403. Basic punishment structure

`(a) LARGE QUANTITIES OF MAJOR DRUGS-

`(1) PRISON- If the violation of section 402 involves a large quantity of a major drug, the offender shall be imprisoned any term of years not less than ten, or for life. If the offender is a repeat offender or if death or serious bodily injury results to any person from the offense, the term shall not be less than 20 years. If the defendant is a career offender, the term shall be life.

`(2) FINE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be fined not more than $4,000,000, and if the offender is a career offender, not more than $8,000,000.

`(3) SUPERVISED RELEASE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be sentenced to supervised release for a period of 5 years, but if the offender is a career offender or if death or serious bodily injury results to any person from the offense, for a period of 10 years.

`(b) SUBSTANTIAL QUANTITIES OF MAJOR DRUGS-

`(1) PRISON- If the violation of section 402 involves a substantial quantity of a major drug, the offender shall be imprisoned not less than five years nor more than 40 years. If the offender is a repeat offender the term shall not be less than 10 years. If death or serious bodily injury results to any person from the offense, the term shall be life.

`(2) FINE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be fined not more than $2,000,000, and if the offender is a career offender, not more than $4,000,000.

`(3) SUPERVISED RELEASE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be sentenced to supervised release for a period of 4 years, but if the offender is a repeat offender or death or serious bodily injury result to any person from the offense, for a period of 8 years.

`(c) LESSER QUANTITIES OF MAJOR DRUGS AND ANY QUANTITY OF CERTAIN OTHER SUBSTANCES-

`(1) PRISON- If the violation of section 402 involves a quantity, lesser than those specified in subsection (a) or (b), of a major drug, or any quantity of another substance in schedule I or II, or a date rape drug, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years. If the offender is a repeat offender, the term shall not be less than 30 years. If death or serious bodily injury results to any person from the offense, the offender shall be imprisoned any term or years not less than 20, or for life.

`(2) FINE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be fined not more than $1,000,000, and if the offender is a repeat offender, not more than $2,000,000.

`(3) SUPERVISED RELEASE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be sentence to supervised release for a period of 3 years, but if the defendant is a repeat offender for a period of 6 years.

`(d) MIDLEVEL QUANTITIES OF MARIJUANA, LARGER QUANTITIES OF HASHISH, AND CERTAIN SCHEDULE III SUBSTANCES-

`(1) PRISON- If the violation of section 402 involves a midlevel quantity of marijuana, a larger quantity of hashish, or any quantity of a schedule III substance for which a penalty is not imposed in a previous subsection of this section, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than five years, or if a repeat offender, not more than 10 years.

`(2) FINE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be fined not more than $250,000 and if the offender is a career offender, not more than $500,000.

`(3) SUPERVISED RELEASE- An offender to whom paragraph (1) applies shall be sentenced to supervised release for a period of 2 years, but if the defendant is a repeat offender, for a period of 4 years.

`(e) SCHEDULE IV SUBSTANCES- If the violation of section 402 involves a schedule IV substance, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than three years and to supervised release for one year. If the offender is a repeat offender, the offender shall be fined not more than $500,000 or imprisoned not more than six years, or both, and shall be sentenced to supervised release for two years.

`(f) SCHEDULE V SUBSTANCES- If the violation of section 402 involves a schedule V substance, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than one year. If the offender is a repeat offender, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than two years.

`Sec. 404. Offenses involving protected persons

`(a) DISTRIBUTION WITH INTENT TO COMMIT A CRIME OF VIOLENCE-

`(1) IN GENERAL- Whoever, with intent to commit a crime of violence (including an offense that would also be punishable under section 201 if the conduct occurred in the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States), against an individual, violates section 402 by distributing a controlled substance or controlled substance analogue to that individual without that individual's knowledge shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(2) DEFINITION- As used in this subsection, the term `without that individual's knowledge' means that the individual is unaware that a substance with the ability to alter that individual's ability to appraise conduct or to decline participation in or communicate unwillingness to participate in conduct is administered to the individual.

`(b) ENDANGERING HUMAN LIFE WHILE ILLEGALLY MANUFACTURING CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE- Whoever, while manufacturing a controlled substance in violation of the Controlled Substances Act, or attempting or conspiring to do so, or transporting materials, including chemicals, to do so, knowingly creates a risk of harm to human life shall be imprisoned not more than ten years.

`(c) DISTRIBUTION TO MINORS-

`(1) FIRST OFFENSES- Except as provided in section 405 and in paragraph (2), any person at least 18 years of age who violates section 402 by distributing a controlled substance to a person under 21 years of age is subject to (A) twice the maximum punishment authorized by section 403, and (B) at least twice any term of supervised release authorized by section 403, for a first offense involving the same controlled substance and schedule. Except to the extent a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided by section 403, a term of imprisonment under this subsection shall be not less than one year. The mandatory minimum sentencing provisions of this subsection shall not apply to offenses involving 5 grams or less of marihuana.

`(2) SECOND AND SUBSEQUENT OFFENSES- Except as provided in section 405, if the offender under paragraph (1) has a prior conviction under paragraph (1) (or under section 303(b)(2) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act as in effect prior to the effective date of section 701(b) of the Controlled Substances Act) is subject to (A) three times the maximum punishment authorized by section 403, and (B) at least three times any term of supervised release authorized by section 403, for a second offense or subsequent offense involving the same controlled substance and schedule. Except to the extent a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided by section 403, a term of imprisonment under this subsection shall be not less than one year. Penalties for third and subsequent convictions shall those provided by section 403(a) for offenses involving large quantities of major drugs under that section.

`(d) ADULTS USING CHILDREN- Whoever, being at least 21 years of age, knowingly--

`(1) employs, hires, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a child to violate section 402; or

`(2) employs, hires, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a child to assist in avoiding detection or apprehension, for any offense under section 402, by any Federal, State, or local law enforcement official,

is punishable by a term of imprisonment and a fine, or both, up to triple those authorized by section 403.

`(e) YOUNG ADULTS USING CHILDREN-

`(1) Whoever, not being a child, knowingly--

`(A) employs, hires, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces, a child to violate any provision of this chapter or of the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act;

`(B) employs, hires, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces, child to assist in avoiding detection or apprehension, for any such violation, by any Federal, State, or local law enforcement official; or

`(C) receives a controlled substance from a child, other than an immediate family member, in violation of section 402;

shall be imprisoned for up to twice the maximum term otherwise authorized, or fined up to twice the fine otherwise authorized, or both, and be sentenced at least twice any term of supervised release otherwise authorized for a first offense. Except to the extent a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided, a term of imprisonment under this subsection shall not be less than one year.

`(2) Whoever violates paragraph (1) after a prior conviction under paragraph (1) of this section, is punishable by a term of imprisonment up to three times that otherwise authorized, or both, and at least three times any term of supervised release otherwise authorized for a first offense. Except to the extent a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided, a term of imprisonment under this subsection shall not be less than one year. Penalties for third and subsequent convictions shall those provided by section 403(a) for offenses involving large quantities of major drugs under that section.

`(f) PROVIDING CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES TO CHILDREN- Whoever violates subsection (c) or (d)--

`(1) by knowingly providing or distributing a controlled substance or a controlled substance analogue to a child; or

`(2) if the person employed, hired, or used is 14 years of age or younger;

shall be subject to a term of imprisonment for not more than five years, in addition to any other punishment authorized by this chapter.

`(g) PREGNANT PERSONS- Except as authorized by the Controlled Substances Act, it shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly or intentionally provide or distribute any controlled substance to a pregnant individual in violation of any provision of this title. Any person who violates this subsection shall be subject to the same penalties as are provided for a violation of subsection (c).

`Sec. 405. Enhancement for offenses involving protected places

`(a) CULTIVATION ON FEDERAL PROPERTY- The maximum fine that may be imposed for a violation of section 402 by cultivating a controlled substance on Federal property shall be the greater of the amount otherwise provided in this chapter or--

`(1) $500,000 if the defendant is an individual; or

`(2) $1,000,000 if the defendant is other than an individual.

`(b) USE OF HAZARDOUS SUBSTANCE ON FEDERAL LAND- Whoever in the course of a violation of section 402 knowingly uses a poison, chemical, or other hazardous substance on Federal land, and, by such use--

`(1) creates a serious hazard to humans, wildlife, or domestic animals,

`(2) degrades or harms the environment or natural resources, or

`(3) pollutes an aquifer, spring, stream, river, or body of water,

or attempt or conspires to do so shall be imprisoned not more than five years.

`(c) BOOBYTRAPS-

`(1) Whoever knowingly assembles, maintains,or places a boobytrap on Federal property where a controlled substance is being manufactured, distributed, or dispensed, or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than ten years.

`(2) If the offender has one or more prior convictions for an offense under this subsection, the offender shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(3) As used in this subsection, the term `boobytrap' means any concealed or camouflaged device designed to cause bodily injury when triggered by any action of any unsuspecting person making contact with the device. Such term includes guns, ammunition, or explosive devices attached to trip wires or other triggering mechanisms, sharpened stakes, and lines or wires with hooks attached.

`(d) SAFETY REST AREAS-

`(1) ENHANCEMENT- Whoever violates section 402 by distributing or possessing with intent to distribute a controlled substance in or on, or within 1,000 feet of, a truck stop or safety rest area is subject to--

`(A) in the case of a first offense under this subsection subject to--

`(i) twice the maximum punishment provided in section 403; and

`(ii) twice any term of supervised release authorized by section 403 for a first offense; and

`(B) in the case of an offense under this subsection after a prior conviction under this subsection--

`(i) three times the maximum punishment authorized by section 403; and

`(ii) three times any term of supervised release authorized by section 403 for a first offense.

`(2) DEFINITIONS- As used in this subsection--

`(A) the term `safety rest area' means a roadside facility with parking facilities for the rest or other needs of motorists; and

`(B) the term `truck stop' means a facility (including any parking lot appurtenant thereto) that--

`(i) has the capacity to provide fuel or service, or both, to any commercial motor vehicle (as defined in section 31301 of title 49, United States Code), operating in commerce (as defined in that section); and

`(ii) is located within 2,500 feet of the National System of Interstate and Defense Highways or the Federal-Aid Primary System.

`Sec. 406. Maintaining drug-involved premises.

`(a) Except as authorized by this title, it shall be unlawful to--

`(1) knowingly open, lease, rent, use, or maintain any place, whether permanently or temporarily, for the purpose of manufacturing, distributing, or using any controlled substance; or

`(2) manage or control any place, whether permanently or temporarily, either as an owner, lessee, agent, employee, occupant, or mortgagee, and knowingly and intentionally rent, lease, profit from, or make available for use, with or without compensation, the place for the purpose of unlawfully manufacturing, storing, distributing, or using a controlled substance.

`(b) Any person who violates subsection (a) of this section shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than 20 years or a fine of not more than $500,000, or both, or a fine of $2,000,000 for a person other than an individual.

`(c) A violation of subsection (a) shall be considered an offense against property for purposes of section 3663A(c)(1)(A)(ii) of title 18, United States Code.

`(d)(1) Any person who violates subsection (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of not more than the greater of--

`(A) $250,000; or

`(B) 2 times the gross receipts, either known or estimated, that were derived from each violation that is attributable to the person.

`(2) If a civil penalty is calculated under paragraph (1)(B), and there is more than 1 defendant, the court may apportion the penalty between multiple violators, but each violator shall be jointly and severally liable for the civil penalty under this subsection.

`(e) Any person who violates subsection (a) shall be subject to declaratory and injunctive remedies as set forth in section 403(f) of the Controlled Substances Act.

`Sec. 407. Distribution in or near schools

`(a) IN GENERAL- Whoever violates section 402 by distributing, possessing with intent to distribute, or manufacturing a controlled substance in or on, or within one thousand feet of, the real property comprising a public or private elementary, vocational, or secondary school or a public or private college, junior college, or university, or a playground, or housing facility owned by a public housing authority, or within 100 feet of a public or private youth center, public swimming pool, or video arcade facility, is (except as provided in subsection (b)) subject to--

`(1) twice the maximum punishment authorized by section 403; and

`(2) at least twice any term of supervised release authorized by section 403 for a first offense.

A fine up to twice that authorized by section 403 may be imposed in addition to any term of imprisonment authorized by this subsection. Except to the extent a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided by section 403, a person shall be sentenced under this subsection to a term of imprisonment of not less than one year. The mandatory minimum sentencing provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to offenses involving 5 grams or less of marihuana.

`(b) SECOND OR SUBSEQUENT OFFENSES- Whoever violates subsection (a) after a prior conviction under subsection (a) is punishable--

`(1) by the greater of--

`(A) a term of imprisonment of not less than three years and not more than life imprisonment; or

`(B) three times the maximum punishment authorized by section 403 for a first offense; and

`(2) at least three times any term of supervised release authorized by section 403 for a first offense.

`A fine up to three times that authorized by section 403 may be imposed in addition to any term of imprisonment authorized by this subsection. Except to the extent a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided by section 401(b), a person shall be sentenced under this subsection to a term of imprisonment of not less than three years. Penalties for third and subsequent convictions shall be governed by section 403.

`(c) SPECIAL RULE FOR USING CHILDREN- Notwithstanding any other law, whoever, being at least 21 years of age, knowingly--

`(1) employs, hires, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a child to violate this section; or

`(2) employs, hires, uses, persuades, induces, entices, or coerces a child to assist in avoiding detection or apprehension for any offense under this section by any Federal, State, or local law enforcement official,

is punishable by a term of imprisonment, a fine, or both, up to triple those authorized by section 403.

`(d) SPECIAL RULE FOR MANDATORY MINIMUM SENTENCES- In the case of any mandatory minimum sentence imposed under subsection (b), imposition or execution of such sentence shall not be suspended and probation shall not be granted. An individual convicted under this section shall not be eligible for parole until the individual has served the mandatory minimum term of imprisonment as provided by this section.

`(e) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `playground' means any outdoor facility (including any parking lot appurtenant thereto) intended for recreation, open to the public, and with any portion thereof containing three or more separate apparatus intended for the recreation of children including, but not limited to, sliding boards, swingsets, and teeterboards;

`(2) the term `youth center' means any recreational facility and/or gymnasium (including any parking lot appurtenant thereto), intended primarily for use by persons under 18 years of age, which regularly provides athletic, civic, or cultural activities;

`(3) the term `video arcade facility' means any facility, legally accessible to children, intended primarily for the use of pinball and video machines for amusement containing a minimum of ten machines that are either pinball or video machines; and

`(4) the term `swimming pool' includes any parking lot appurtenant thereto.

`Sec. 408. Listed chemicals

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever knowingly--

`(1) possesses a listed chemical with intent to manufacture a controlled substance except as authorized by the Controlled Substances Act;

`(2) possesses or distributes, a listed chemical knowing, or having reasonable cause to believe, that the listed chemical will be used to manufacture a controlled substance except as authorized by the Controlled Substances Act; or

`(3) with the intent of causing the evasion of the recordkeeping or reporting requirements of section 310 of the Controlled Substances Act, or the regulations issued under that section, receives or distributes a reportable amount of any listed chemical in units small enough so that the making of records or filing of reports under that section is not required;

shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years in the case of a violation of paragraph (1) or (2) involving a list I chemical or not more than 10 years in any other case.

`(b) INJUNCTIONS- In addition to any other applicable penalty, any person convicted of a felony violation of this section relating to the receipt, distribution, manufacture, exportation, or importation of a listed chemical may be enjoined from engaging in any transaction involving a listed chemical for not more than ten years.

`(c) ADDITIONAL OFFENSES-

`(1) Whoever knowingly distributes a listed chemical in violation of the Controlled Substances Act (other than in violation of a recordkeeping or reporting requirement of section 310), or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`(2) Whoever knowingly possesses any listed chemical, with knowledge that the recordkeeping or reporting requirements of section 310 of such Act have not been adhered to, if, after such knowledge is acquired, such person does not take immediate steps to remedy the violation, or attempts or conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than one year.

`Sec. 409. Domestic regulatory offenses

`(a) UNLAWFUL CONDUCT GENERALLY- It shall be unlawful for any person--

`(1) who is subject to the requirements of part C of the Controlled Substances Act to distribute or dispense a controlled substance in violation of section 309 of that Act;

`(2) who is a registrant to distribute or dispense a controlled substance not authorized by his registration to another registrant or other authorized person or to manufacture a controlled substance not authorized by his registration;

`(3) who is a registrant to distribute a controlled substance in violation of section 305 of the Controlled Substances Act;

`(4) to remove, alter, or obliterate a symbol or label required by section 305 of the Controlled Substances Act;

`(5) to refuse or negligently fail to make, keep, or furnish any record, report, notification, declaration, order or order form, statement, invoice, or information required under the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act;

`(6) to refuse any entry into any premises or inspection authorized by the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act;

`(7) to remove, break, injure, or deface a seal placed upon controlled substances pursuant to section 304(f) or 511 of the Controlled Substances Act or to remove or dispose of substances so placed under seal;

`(8) to use, to his own advantage, or to reveal, other than to duly authorized officers or employees of the United States, or to the courts when relevant in any judicial proceeding under this title or title III, any information acquired in the course of an inspection authorized by the Controlled Substances Act concerning any method or process which as a trade secret is entitled to protection, or to use to his own advantage or reveal (other than as authorized by section 310 of that Act) any information that is confidential under such section;

`(9) who is a regulated person to engage in a regulated transaction without obtaining the identification required by 310(a)(3) of the Controlled Substances Act;

`(10) negligently to fail to keep a record or make a report under section 310 of that Act; or

`(11) to distribute a laboratory supply to a person who uses, or attempts to use, that laboratory supply to manufacture a controlled substance or a listed chemical, in violation of the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, with reckless disregard for the illegal uses to which such a laboratory supply will be put.

`(b) DEFINITION- As used in subsection (a)(11), the term `laboratory supply' means a listed chemical or any chemical, substance, or item on a special surveillance list published by the Attorney General, which contains chemicals, products, materials, or equipment used in the manufacture of controlled substances and listed chemicals. For purposes of that subsection, there is a rebuttable presumption of reckless disregard at trial if the Attorney General notifies a firm in writing that a laboratory supply sold by the firm, or any other person or firm, has been used by a customer of the notified firm, or distributed further by that customer, for the unlawful production of controlled substances or listed chemicals a firm distributes and 2 weeks or more after the notification the notified firm distributes a laboratory supply to the customer.

`(c) SCHEDULE I AND II SUBSTANCES- It shall be unlawful for any person who is a registrant to manufacture a controlled substance in schedule I or II which is--

`(1) not expressly authorized by the registration and by a quota assigned to that registrant pursuant to section 306 of the Controlled Substances Act; or

`(2) in excess of a quota assigned to that registrant pursuant to section 306.

`(d)(1)(A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B) of this paragraph and paragraph (2), any person who violates this section shall, with respect to any such violation, be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $25,000.

`(B) In the case of a violation of paragraph (5) or (10) of subsection (a), the civil penalty shall not exceed $10,000.

`(2)(A) Whoever knowingly violates, or attempts or conspires to violate, this section shall, except as otherwise provided in subparagraph (B), be imprisoned not more than one year.

`(B) If a violation referred to in subparagraph (A) was committed after one or more prior convictions of the offender for an offense punishable under this paragraph (2), or for a crime under any other provision of any law of the United States relating to controlled substances, narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant substances, have become final, such person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than 2 years.

`(C) In addition to the penalties set forth elsewhere in this title, any business that violates paragraph (11) of subsection (a) shall, with respect to the first such violation, be subject to a civil penalty of not more than $250,000, but shall not be subject to criminal penalties under this section, and shall, for any succeeding violation, be subject to a civil fine of not more than $250,000 or double the last previously imposed penalty, whichever is greater.

`(3) Except under the conditions specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection, a violation of this section does not constitute a crime, and a judgment for the United States and imposition of a civil penalty pursuant to paragraph (1) shall not give rise to any disability or legal disadvantage based on conviction for a criminal offense.

`Sec. 410. Additional domestic regulatory offenses

`(a) GENERALLY- It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly--

`(1) as a registrant to distribute a controlled substance classified in schedule I or II, in the course of legitimate business, except pursuant to an order or an order form as required by section 308 of the Controlled Substances Act;

`(2) to use in the course of the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance, or to use for the purpose of acquiring or obtaining a controlled substance, a registration number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended, expired, or issued to another person;

`(3) to acquire or obtain possession of a controlled substance by misrepresentation, fraud, forgery, deception, or subterfuge;

`(4)(A) to furnish false or fraudulent material information in, or omit any material information from, any application, report, record, or other document required to be made, kept, or filed under this chapter, the Controlled Substances Act, or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, or (B) to present false or fraudulent identification where the person is receiving or purchasing a listed chemical and the person is required to present identification under section 310(a) of the Controlled Substances Act;

`(5) to make, distribute, or possess any punch, die, plate, stone, or other thing designed to print, imprint, or reproduce the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, or device of another or any likeness of any of the foregoing upon any drug or container or labeling thereof so as to render such drug a counterfeit substance;

`(6) to possess any three-neck round-bottom flask, tableting machine, encapsulating machine, or gelatin capsule, or any equipment, chemical, product, or material which may be used to manufacture a controlled substance or listed chemical, knowing, intending, or having reasonable cause to believe, that it will be used to manufacture a controlled substance or listed chemical in violation of this title, the Controlled Substances Act, or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act;

`(7) to manufacture, distribute, export, or import any three-neck round-bottom flask, tableting machine, encapsulating machine, or gelatin capsule, or any equipment, chemical, product, or material which may be used to manufacture a controlled substance or listed chemical, knowing, intending, or having reasonable cause to believe, that it will be used to manufacture a controlled substance or listed chemical in violation of this title, the Controlled Substances Act, or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act or, in the case of an exportation, in violation of this title, the Controlled Substances Act, the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, or of the laws of the country to which it is exported;

`(8) to create a chemical mixture for the purpose of evading a requirement of section 310 of the Controlled Substances Act or to receive a chemical mixture created for that purpose; or

`(9) to distribute, import, or export a list I chemical without the registration required by the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act.

`(b) USE OF COMMUNICATION FACILITY-

`(1) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to use any communication facility in committing or in causing or facilitating the commission of any felony under this chapter or the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act.

`(2) Each separate use of a communication facility shall be a separate offense under this subsection.

`(3) As used in this subsection, the term `communication facility' means any and all public and private instrumentalities used or useful in the transmission of writing, signs, signals, pictures, or sounds of all kinds and includes mail, telephone, wire, radio, and all other means of communication.

`(c) ADVERTISING-

`(1) It shall be unlawful for any person to place in any newspaper, magazine, handbill, or other publications, any written advertisement knowing that it has the purpose of seeking or offering illegally to receive, buy, or distribute a schedule I controlled substance.

`(2) As used in this subsection the term `advertisement' includes, in addition to its ordinary meaning, such advertisements as those for a catalog of schedule I controlled substances and any similar written advertisement that has the purpose of seeking or offering illegally to receive, buy, or distribute a schedule I controlled substance. The term `advertisement' does not include material which merely advocates the use of a similar material, which advocates a position or practice, and does not attempt to propose or facilitate an actual transaction in a schedule I controlled substance.

`(d) PENALTIES-

`(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), whoever knowingly violates this section shall be imprisoned not more than 4 years; except that if any person commits such a violation after being convicted for a felony under any law of the United States relating to controlled substances, narcotic drugs, marihuana, or depressant or stimulant substances, such person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than 8 years.

`(2) Whoever, with the intent to manufacture or to facilitate the manufacture of methamphetamine, violates paragraph (6) or (7) of subsection (a), shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years; except that if any person commits such a violation after one or more prior convictions of that persons for a violation of any law of the United States or any State relating to controlled substances or listed chemicals, such person shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(e) INJUNCTION RELATING TO ENGAGING IN TRANSACTIONS- In addition to any other applicable penalty, any person convicted of a felony violation of this section relating to the receipt, distribution, manufacture, exportation, or importation of a listed chemical may be enjoined from engaging in any transaction involving a listed chemical for not more than ten years.

`(f) DECLARATORY AND OTHER RELIEF-

`(1) In addition to any penalty provided in this section, the Attorney General is authorized to commence a civil action for appropriate declaratory or injunctive relief relating to a violation of this section, section 402, or section 406.

`(2) Any action under this subsection may be brought in the district court of the United States for the district in which the defendant is located or resides or is doing business.

`(3) Any order or judgment issued by the court pursuant to this subsection shall be tailored to restrain the violation.

`(4) The court shall proceed as soon as practicable to the hearing and determination of such an action. An action under this subsection is governed by the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure except that, if an indictment has been returned against the respondent, discovery is governed by the Federal Rules of Criminal Procedure.

`Sec. 411. Penalty for simple possession

`(a) ELEMENTS OF OFFENSE- It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly--

`(1) to possess a controlled substance unless such substance was obtained directly, or pursuant to a valid prescription or order, from a practitioner acting in the course of professional practice, or except as otherwise authorized by the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act; or

`(2) to possess any list I chemical obtained pursuant to or under authority of a registration issued to that person under section 303 of the Controlled Substances Act or section 1008 of the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, if that registration has been revoked or suspended, if that registration has expired, or if the registrant has ceased to do business in the manner contemplated by his registration.

`(b) PUNISHMENT-

`(1) GENERALLY- Whoever violates subsection (a) shall be imprisoned not more than 1 year, except that the offense is after a prior conviction of the offender under the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act, or for any drug, narcotic, or chemical offense chargeable under the law of any State, the offender shall be imprisoned not less than 15 days nor more than 2 years, and shall be fined a minimum of $2,500, and if the offense is after two or more such convictions, the offender shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment for not less than 90 days but not more than 3 years, and shall be fined a minimum of $5,000.

`(2) COCAINE BASE- Notwithstanding paragraph (a), a person convicted under this section for the possession of a mixture or substance which contains cocaine base shall be imprisoned not less than 5 years and not more than 20 years, and fined a minimum of $1,000, if the conviction is a first conviction under this subsection and the amount of the mixture or substance exceeds 5 grams, if the conviction is after a prior conviction for the possession of such a mixture or substance under this subsection becomes final and the amount of the mixture or substance exceeds 3 grams, or if the conviction is after 2 or more prior convictions for the possession of such a mixture or substance under this subsection become final and the amount of the mixture or substance exceeds 1 gram.

`(3) FLUNITRAZEPAM- Notwithstanding any penalty provided in this subsection, any person convicted under this subsection for the possession of flunitrazepam shall be imprisoned for not more than 3 years, shall be fined as otherwise provided in this section, or both. The imposition or execution of a minimum sentence required to be imposed under this subsection shall not be suspended or deferred.

`(4) COSTS- Further, upon conviction, a person who violates this subsection shall be fined the reasonable costs of the investigation and prosecution of the offense, including the costs of prosecution of an offense as defined in sections 1918 and 1920 of title 28, except that this sentence shall not apply and a fine under this section need not be imposed if the court determines the defendant lacks the ability to pay.

`(c) DEFINITION- As used in this section, the term `drug, narcotic, or chemical offense' means any offense which proscribes the possession, distribution, manufacture, cultivation, sale, transfer, or the attempt or conspiracy to possess, distribute, manufacture, cultivate, sell or transfer any substance the possession of which is prohibited under the Controlled Substances Act.

`Sec. 412. Civil penalty for possession of small amounts of certain controlled substances

`(a) IN GENERAL- An individual who knowingly possesses a controlled substance described in section 403(a) in violation of section 411 in an amount that, as specified by regulation of the Attorney General, is a personal use amount shall be liable to the United States for a civil penalty in an amount not to exceed $10,000.

`(b) INCOME AND NET ASSETS- The income and net assets of an individual shall not be relevant to the determination whether to assess a civil penalty under this section or to prosecute the individual criminally. However, in determining the amount of a penalty under this section, the income and net assets of an individual shall be considered.

`(c) PRIOR CONVICTION- A civil penalty may not be assessed under this section if the individual previously was convicted of a Federal or State offense relating to a controlled substance.

`(d) LIMITATION ON NUMBER OF ASSESSMENTS- A civil penalty may not be assessed on an individual under this section on more than two separate occasions.

`(e) ASSESSMENT- A civil penalty under this section may be assessed by the Attorney General only by an order made on the record after opportunity for a hearing in accordance with section 554 of title 5. The Attorney General shall provide written notice to the individual who is the subject of the proposed order informing the individual of the opportunity to receive such a hearing with respect to the proposed order. The hearing may be held only if the individual makes a request for the hearing before the expiration of the 30-day period beginning on the date such notice is issued.

`(f) COMPROMISE- The Attorney General may compromise, modify, or remit, with or without conditions, any civil penalty imposed under this section.

`(g) JUDICIAL REVIEW- If the Attorney General issues an order pursuant to subsection (e) after a hearing described in such subsection, the individual who is the subject of the order may, before the expiration of the 30-day period beginning on the date the order is issued, bring a civil action in the appropriate district court of the United States. In such action, the law and the facts of the violation and the assessment of the civil penalty shall be determined de novo, and shall include the right of a trial by jury, the right to counsel, and the right to confront witnesses. The facts of the violation shall be proved beyond a reasonable doubt.

`(h) CIVIL ACTION- If an individual does not request a hearing pursuant to subsection (e) and the Attorney General issues an order pursuant to such subsection, or if an individual does not under subsection (g) seek judicial review of such an order, the Attorney General may commence a civil action in any appropriate district court of the United States for the purpose of recovering the amount assessed and an amount representing interest at a rate computed in accordance with section 1961 of title 28, United States Code. Such interest shall accrue from the expiration of the 30-day period described in subsection (g). In such an action, the decision of the Attorney General to issue the order, and the amount of the penalty assessed by the Attorney General, shall not be subject to review.

`(i) LIMITATION- The Attorney General may not under this section commence proceeding against an individual after the expiration of the 5-year period beginning on the date on which the individual allegedly violated subsection (a).

`(j) EXPUNGEMENT PROCEDURES- The Attorney General shall dismiss the proceedings under this section against an individual upon application of such individual at any time after the expiration of 3 years if--

`(1) the individual has not previously been assessed a civil penalty under this section;

`(2) the individual has paid the assessment;

`(3) the individual has complied with any conditions imposed by the Attorney General;

`(4) the individual has not been convicted of a Federal or State offense relating to a controlled substance; and

`(5) the individual agrees to submit to a drug test, and such test shows the individual to be drug free.

A nonpublic record of a disposition under this subsection shall be retained by the Department of Justice solely for the purpose of determining in any subsequent proceeding whether the person qualified for a civil penalty or expungement under this section. If a record is expunged under this subsection, an individual concerning whom such an expungement has been made shall not be held thereafter under any provision of law to be guilty of perjury, false swearing, or making a false statement by reason of his failure to recite or acknowledge a proceeding under this section or the results thereof in response to an inquiry made of him for any purpose.

`Sec. 413. Continuing criminal enterprise

`(a) ENGAGING IN ENTERPRISE-

`(1) Whoever engages in a continuing criminal enterprise shall be imprisoned for any term of years not less than 20, or for life and fined not more than $2,000,000.

`(2) If a person engages in such activity after a prior conviction of that person under this section, the offender shall be imprisoned any term of years not less than 30, or for life, and fined not to exceed the greater of twice the amount otherwise authorized in this chapter, or $4,000,000.

`(b) AGGRAVATED OFFENSE- Whoever engages in a continuing criminal enterprise shall be imprisoned for life and fined under subsection (a), if--

`(1) such person is the principal administrator, organizer, or leader of the enterprise or is one of several such principal administrators, organizers, or leaders; and

`(2)(A) the violation referred to in subsection (c)(1) involved at least 300 times the quantity of a substance described in section 403(b); or

`(B) the enterprise, or any other enterprise in which the defendant was the principal or one of several principal administrators, organizers, or leaders, received $10 million dollars in gross receipts during any twelve-month period of its existence for the manufacture, importation, or distribution of a substance described in section 403(b).

`(c) WHAT CONSTITUTES `ENGAGING'- For purposes of this section, a person is engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise if--

`(1) that person violates any provision of this chapter the punishment for which is a felony, and

`(2) such violation is a part of a continuing series of violations of chapter--

`(A) which are undertaken by such person in concert with five or more other persons with respect to whom such person occupies a position of organizer, a supervisory position, or any other position of management, and

`(B) from which such person obtains substantial income or resources.

`(d) SPECIAL RULE FOR SENTENCING- In the case of any sentence imposed under this section, imposition or execution of such sentence shall not be suspended, probation shall not be granted, and the Act of July 15, 1932 (D.C. Code, secs. 24-203--24-207), shall not apply.

`(e) DEATH PENALTY-

`(1) In addition to the other penalties set forth in this section whoever--

`(A) while engaging in or working in furtherance of a continuing criminal enterprise, or engaging in an offense punishable under section 403(a) intentionally kills or counsels, commands, induces, procures, or causes the intentional killing of an individual and such killing results; and

`(B) during the commission of, in furtherance of, or while attempting to avoid apprehension, prosecution or service of a prison sentence for, a felony violation of this chapter intentionally kills or counsels, commands, induces, procures, or causes the intentional killing of any Federal, State, or local law enforcement officer engaged in, or on account of, the performance of such officer's official duties and such killing results;

shall be imprisoned any term of year not less than 20, or for life, or may be sentenced to death.

`(2) As used in paragraph (1)(B), the term `law enforcement officer' means a public servant authorized by law to conduct or engage in the prevention, investigation, prosecution or adjudication of an offense, and includes those engaged in corrections, probation, or parole functions.

`Sec. 414. Drug paraphernalia

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever--

`(1) sells or offers for sale drug paraphernalia;

`(2) uses a facility of interstate or foreign commerce to transport drug paraphernalia; or

`(3) imports or exports drug paraphernalia.

shall be imprisoned not more than three years.

`(b) FORFEITURE- Any drug paraphernalia involved in any violation of subsection (a) of this section shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture upon the conviction of a person for such violation. Any such paraphernalia shall be delivered to the Administrator of General Services, General Services Administration, who may order such paraphernalia destroyed or may authorize its use for law enforcement or educational purposes by Federal, State, or local authorities.

`(c) DEFINITION- The term `drug paraphernalia' means any equipment, product, or material of any kind which is primarily intended or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, concealing, producing, processing, preparing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance, possession of which is unlawful under the Controlled Substances Act (title II of Public Law 91-513). It includes items primarily intended or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing marijuana, cocaine, hashish, hashish oil, PCP, methamphetamine, or amphetamines into the human body, such as--

`(1) metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;

`(2) water pipes;

`(3) carburetion tubes and devices;

`(4) smoking and carburetion masks;

`(5) roach clips: meaning objects used to hold burning material, such as a marihuana cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;

`(6) miniature spoons with level capacities of one-tenth cubic centimeter or less;

`(7) chamber pipes;

`(8) carburetor pipes;

`(9) electric pipes;

`(10) air-driven pipes;

`(11) chillums;

`(12) bongs;

`(13) ice pipes or chillers;

`(14) wired cigarette papers; or

`(15) cocaine freebase kits.

`(e) FACTORS WHICH MAY BE CONSIDERED- In determining whether an item constitutes drug paraphernalia, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following may be considered:

`(1) Instructions, oral or written, provided with the item concerning its use.

`(2) Descriptive materials accompanying the item which explain or depict its use.

`(3) National and local advertising concerning its use.

`(4) The manner in which the item is displayed for sale.

`(5) Whether the owner, or anyone in control of the item, is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of tobacco products.

`(6) Direct or circumstantial evidence of the radio of sales of the item to the total sales of the business enterprise.

`(7) The existence and scope of legitimate uses of the item in the community.

`(8) Expert testimony concerning its use.

`(f) EXCLUSIONS- This section shall not apply to--

`(1) any person authorized by local, State, or Federal law to manufacture, possess, or distribute such items; or

`(2) any item that, in the normal lawful course of business, is imported, exported, transported, or sold through the mail or by any other means, and traditionally intended for use with tobacco products, including any pipe, paper, or accessory.

`Sec. 415. Proceedings to establish prior convictions

`(a) FILING OF INFORMATION-

`(1) No person who is convicted of an offense under this chapter shall be sentenced to increased punishment by reason of one or more prior convictions, unless before trial, or before entry of a plea of guilty, the United States attorney files an information with the court (and serves a copy of such information on the person or counsel for the person) stating in writing the previous convictions to be relied upon. Upon a showing by the United States attorney that facts regarding prior convictions could not with due diligence be obtained prior to trial or before entry of a plea of guilty, the court may postpone the trial or the taking of the plea of guilty for a reasonable period for the purpose of obtaining such facts. Clerical mistakes in the information may be amended at any time prior to the pronouncement of sentence.

`(2) An information may not be filed under this section if the increased punishment which may be imposed is imprisonment for a term in excess of three years unless the person either waived or was afforded prosecution by indictment for the offense for which such increased punishment may be imposed.

`(b) AFFIRMATION OR DENIAL OF PREVIOUS CONVICTION- If the United States attorney files an information under this section, the court shall after conviction but before pronouncement of sentence inquire of the person with respect to whom the information was filed whether he affirms or denies that he has been previously convicted as alleged in the information, and shall inform him that any challenge to a prior conviction which is not made before sentence is imposed may not thereafter be raised to attack the sentence.

`(c) DENIAL, WRITTEN RESPONSE, AND HEARING-

`(1) If the person denies any allegation of the information of prior conviction, or claims that any conviction alleged is invalid, he shall file a written response to the information. A copy of the response shall be served upon the United States attorney. The court shall hold a hearing to determine any issues raised by the response which would except the person from increased punishment. The failure of the United States attorney to include in the information the complete criminal record of the person or any facts in addition to the convictions to be relied upon shall not constitute grounds for invalidating the notice given in the information required by subsection (a)(1). The hearing shall be before the court without a jury and either party may introduce evidence. Except as otherwise provided in paragraph (2) of this subsection, the United States attorney shall have the burden of proof beyond a reasonable doubt on any issue of fact. At the request of either party, the court shall enter findings of fact and conclusions of law.

`(2) A person claiming that a conviction alleged in the information was obtained in violation of the Constitution of the United States shall set forth his claim, and the factual basis therefor, with particularity in his response to the information. The person shall have the burden of proof by a preponderance of the evidence on any issue of fact raised by the response. Any challenge to a prior conviction, not raised by response to the information before an increased sentence is imposed in reliance thereon, shall be waived unless good cause be shown for failure to make a timely challenge.

`(d) IMPOSITION OF SENTENCE-

`(1) If the person files no response to the information, or if the court determines, after hearing, that the person is subject to increased punishment by reason of prior convictions, the court shall proceed to impose sentence upon him as provided by this part.

`(2) If the court determines that the person has not been convicted as alleged in the information, that a conviction alleged in the information is invalid, or that the person is otherwise not subject to an increased sentence as a matter of law, the court shall, at the request of the United States attorney, postpone sentence to allow an appeal from that determination. If no such request is made, the court shall impose sentence as provided by this part. The person may appeal from an order postponing sentence as if sentence had been pronounced and a final judgment of conviction entered.

`(e) CHALLENGES OF VALIDITY OF PRIOR CONVICTIONS- No person who is convicted of an offense under this chapter may challenge the validity of any prior conviction alleged under this section which occurred more than five years before the date of the information alleging such prior conviction.

`Sec. 416. Anhydrous ammonia

`(a) It is unlawful for any person--

`(1) to steal anhydrous ammonia, or

`(2) to transport stolen anhydrous ammonia across State lines,

knowing, intending, or having reasonable cause to believe that such anhydrous ammonia will be used to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of this part.

`(b) Any person who violates subsection (a) shall be imprisoned or fined, or both, in accordance with section 403(d) as if such violation were a violation of a provision of section 403.

`Sec. 417. Controlled substances import and export listed chemical offenses

`Whoever knowingly--

`(1) imports or exports a listed chemical with intent to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act;

`(2) exports a listed chemical in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported or serves as a broker or trader for an international transaction involving a listed chemical, if the transaction is in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported;

`(3) imports or exports a listed chemical knowing, or having reasonable cause to believe, that the chemical will be used to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of the Controlled Substances Act or the Controlled Substances Import or Export Act;

`(4) exports a listed chemical, or serves as a broker or trader for an international transaction involving a listed chemical, knowing, or having reasonable cause to believe, that the chemical will be used to manufacture a controlled substance in violation of the laws of the country to which the chemical is exported;

`(5) imports or exports a listed chemical, with the intent to evade the reporting or recordkeeping requirements of section 1018 applicable to such importation or exportation by falsely representing to the Attorney General that the importation or exportation qualifies for a waiver of the 15-day notification requirement granted pursuant to section 1018(e) (2) or (3) of the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act by misrepresenting the actual country of final destination of the listed chemical or the actual listed chemical being imported or exported;

`(6) imports or exports a listed chemical in violation of section 1007 or 1018; or

`(7) manufactures, possesses with intent to distribute, or distributes a listed chemical in violation of section 1009.

shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years in the case of a violation of paragraph (1) or (3) involving a list I chemical or not more than 10 years in the case of a violation of this subsection other than a violation of paragraph (1) or (3) involving a list I chemical, or both.

`Sec. 418. Prohibited acts related to foreign terrorist organizations or terrorist persons and groups

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, as made applicable in subsection (b), engages in conduct that would be punishable under section 841(a) of this title if committed within the jurisdiction of the United States, or attempts or conspires to do so, knowing or intending to provide, directly or indirectly, anything of pecuniary value to any person or organization that has engaged or engages in terrorist activity (as defined in section 212(a)(3)(B) of the Immigration and Nationality Act) or terrorism (as defined in section 140(d)(2) of the Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years 1988 and 1989), shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than twice the minimum punishment under section 841(b)(1), and not more than life, a fine in accordance with the provisions of title 18, United States Code, or both. Notwithstanding section 3583 of title 18, United States Code, any sentence imposed under this subsection shall include a term of supervised release of at least 5 years in addition to such term of imprisonment.

`(b) APPLICABILITY- The conduct described in subsection (a) is an offense if--

`(1) the prohibited drug activity or the terrorist offense is in violation of the criminal laws of the United States;

`(2) the offense, the prohibited drug activity, or the terrorist offense occurs in or affects interstate or foreign commerce;

`(3) an offender provides anything of pecuniary value for a terrorist offense that causes or is designed to cause death or serious bodily injury to a national of the United States while that national is outside the United States, or substantial damage to the property of a legal entity organized under the laws of the United States (including any of its States, districts, commonwealths, territories, or possessions) while that property is outside of the United States;

`(4) the offense or the prohibited drug activity occurs in whole or in part outside of the United States (including on the high seas), and a perpetrator of the offense or the prohibited drug activity is a national of the United States or a legal entity organized under the laws of the United States (including any of its States, districts, commonwealths, territories, or possessions); or

`(5) after the conduct required for the offense occurs an offender is brought into or found in the United States, even if the conduct required for the offense occurs outside the United States.

`(c) PROOF REQUIREMENTS- To violate subsection (a), a person must have knowledge that the person or organization has engaged or engages in terrorist activity (as defined in section 212(a)(3)(B) of the Immigration and Nationality Act) or terrorism (as defined in section 140(d)(2) of the Foreign Relations Authorization Act, Fiscal Years 1988 and 1989).

`(d) DEFINITION- As used in this section, the term `anything of pecuniary value' has the meaning given the term in section 506.

`CHAPTER 19--ORGANIZED CRIME

`Subchapter

--Sec.

501

511

521

`SUBCHAPTER A--RACKETEERING

`Sec.

`501. Interference with commerce by threats or violence.

`502. Interstate and foreign travel or transportation in aid of racketeering enterprises.

`503. Interstate transportation of wagering paraphernalia.

`504. Offer, acceptance, or solicitation to influence operations of employee benefit plan.

`505. Prohibition of illegal gambling businesses.

`506. Use of interstate commerce facilities in the commission of murder-for-hire.

`507. Violent crimes in aid of racketeering activity.

`508. Prohibition of unlicensed money transmitting businesses.

`Sec. 501. Interference with commerce by threats or violence

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever affects interstate or foreign commerce, by robbery or extortion or attempts or conspires so to do, or commits or threatens physical violence to any person or property in furtherance of a plan or purpose to do anything in violation of this section shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years.

`(b) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) The term `robbery' means the unlawful taking or obtaining of personal property from the person or presence of another, against his will, by means of actual or threatened force, or violence, or fear of injury, immediate or future, to his person or property, or property in his custody or possession, or the person or property of a relative or member of his family or of anyone in his company at the time of the taking or obtaining.

`(2) The term `extortion' means the obtaining of property from another, with his consent, induced by wrongful use of actual or threatened force, violence, or fear, or under color of official right.

`(c) EXCLUSIONS- This section does not repeal, modify or affect section 6 or 20 of the Clayton Act, the Norris-LaGuardia Act, the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947, or the Railway Labor Act.

`Sec. 502. Interstate and foreign travel or transportation in aid of racketeering enterprises

`(a) ELEMENTS OF OFFENSE-

`(1) Whoever travels in interstate or foreign commerce or uses the mail or any facility in interstate or foreign commerce, with intent to--

`(A) distribute the proceeds of any unlawful activity;

`(B) commit any crime of violence to further any unlawful activity; or

`(C) otherwise promote, manage, establish, carry on, or facilitate the promotion, management, establishment, or carrying on, of any unlawful activity;

and thereafter performs or attempts to engage in the conduct so intended shall be punished as provided in subsection (b).

`(b) PUNISHMENT- The punishment for an offense under subsection (a)--

`(1) with respect to conduct described in subparagraph (A) or (C) shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years; or

`(2) with respect to conduct described in subparagraph (B) shall be imprisoned for not more than 20 years and if death results shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`(c) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section the term `unlawful activity' means--

`(1) any business enterprise involving gambling, liquor on which the Federal excise tax has not been paid, narcotics or controlled substances (as defined in section 102(6) of the Controlled Substances Act), or prostitution offenses in violation of the laws of the State in which they are committed or of the United States;

`(2) extortion, bribery, or arson in violation of the laws of the State in which committed or of the United States; or

`(3) any act which is indictable under subchapter II of chapter 53 of title 31, or under section 1451 or 1452.

`Sec. 503. Interstate transportation of wagering paraphernalia

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, except a common carrier in the usual course of its business, knowingly carries or sends in interstate or foreign commerce any device to be used--

`(1) bookmaking;

`(2) wagering pools with respect to a sporting event; or

`(3) in a numbers, policy, bolita, or similar game

shall be imprisoned for not more than five years.

`(b) EXCLUSION- This section does not apply to--

`(1) parimutuel betting equipment, parimutuel tickets where legally acquired, or parimutuel materials used or designed for use at racetracks or other sporting events in connection with which betting is legal under applicable State law;

`(2) the transportation of betting materials to be used in the placing of bets or wagers on a sporting event into a State in which such betting is legal under the statutes of that State;

`(3) the carriage or transportation in interstate or foreign commerce of any newspaper or similar publication;

`(4) equipment, tickets, or materials used or designed for use within a State in a lottery conducted by that State acting under authority of State law; or

`(5) the transportation in foreign commerce to a destination in a foreign country of equipment, tickets, or materials designed to be used within that foreign country in a lottery which is authorized by the laws of that foreign country.

`(c) EFFECT ON STATE PROSECUTIONS- Nothing in this section creates immunity from criminal prosecution under any laws of a.

`(d) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term`foreign country' means any empire, country, dominion, colony, or protectorate, or any subdivision thereof (other than the United States, its territories or possessions); and

`(2) the term `lottery' means the pooling of proceeds derived from the sale of tickets or chances and allotting those proceeds or parts thereof by chance to one or more chance takers or ticket purchasers, but does not include the placing or accepting of bets or wagers on sporting events or contests.

`Sec. 504. Offer, acceptance, or solicitation to influence operations of employee benefit plan

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, being--

`(1) an administrator, officer, trustee, custodian, counsel, agent, or employee of any employee welfare benefit plan or employee pension benefit plan;

`(2) an officer, counsel, agent, or employee of an employer or an employer any of whose employees are covered by such plan;

`(3) an officer, counsel, agent, or employee of an employee organization any of whose members are covered by such plan; or

`(4) a person who, or an officer, counsel, agent, or employee of an organization which, provides benefit plan services to such plan;

receives or agrees to receive or solicits anything of value because of or with intent to be influenced with respect to, any of the actions, decisions, or other duties relating to any question or matter concerning such plan or any person who directly or indirectly gives or offers, or promises to give or offer, anything prohibited by this section shall be imprisoned not more than three years.

`(b) EXCLUSION- This section does not prohibit the payment to or acceptance by any person of bona fide salary, compensation, or other payments made for goods or facilities actually furnished or for services actually performed in the regular course of his duties as such person, administrator, officer, trustee, custodian, counsel, agent, or employee of such plan, employer, employee organization, or organization providing benefit plan services to such plan.

`(c) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `any employee welfare benefit plan' or `employee pension benefit plan' means any employee welfare benefit plan or employee pension benefit plan, respectively, subject to any provision of title I of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974; and

`(2) the term `employee organization' and `administrator' have the meanings given those terms, respectively, in sections 3(4) and (3)(16) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974.

`Sec. 505. Prohibition of illegal gambling businesses

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever conducts, finances, manages, supervises, directs, or owns all or part of an illegal gambling business shall be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than five years, or both.

`(b) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `illegal gambling business' means a gambling business which--

`(A) is a violation of the law of a State or political subdivision in which it is conducted;

`(B) involves five or more persons who conduct, finance, manage, supervise, direct, or own all or part of such business; and

`(C) has been or remains in substantially continuous operation for a period in excess of 30 days or has a gross revenue of $2,000 in any single day;

`(2) the term `gambling' includes pool-selling, bookmaking, maintaining slot machines, roulette wheels or dice tables, and conducting lotteries, policy, bolita or numbers games, or selling chances therein.

`(c) ESTABLISHMENT OF PROBABLE CAUSE- If five or more persons conduct, finance, manage, supervise, direct, or own all or part of a gambling business and such business operates for two or more successive days, then, for the purpose of obtaining warrants for arrests, interceptions, and other searches and seizures, probable cause that the business receives gross revenue in excess of $2,000 in any single day shall be deemed to have been established.

`(d) FORFEITURE- Any property, including money, used in violation of the provisions of this section may be seized and forfeited to the United States. All provisions of law relating to the seizures, summary, and judicial forfeiture procedures, and condemnation of vessels, vehicles, merchandise, and baggage for violation of the customs laws; the disposition of such vessels, vehicles, merchandise, and baggage or the proceeds from such sale; the remission or mitigation of such forfeitures; and the compromise of claims and the award of compensation to informers in respect of such forfeitures shall apply to seizures and forfeitures incurred or alleged to have been incurred under the provisions of this section, insofar as applicable and not inconsistent with such provisions. Such duties as are imposed upon the collector of customs or any other person in respect to the seizure and forfeiture of vessels, vehicles, merchandise, and baggage under the customs laws shall be performed with respect to seizures and forfeitures of property used or intended for use in violation of this section by such officers, agents, or other persons as may be designated for that purpose by the Attorney General.

`(e) EXCLUSION- This section does not apply to any bingo game, lottery, or similar game of chance conducted by an organization exempt from tax under paragraph (3) of subsection (c) of section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, if no part of the gross receipts derived from such activity inures to the benefits of any private shareholder, member, or employee of such organization except as compensation for actual expenses incurred by him in the conduct of such activity.

`Sec. 506. Use of interstate commerce facilities in the commission of murder-for-hire

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever travels in or causes another (including the intended victim) to travel in interstate or foreign commerce, or uses or causes another (including the intended victim) to use the mail or any facility of interstate or foreign commerce, with intent that a murder be committed in violation of the laws of any State or the United States as consideration for the receipt of, or as consideration for a promise or agreement to pay, anything of pecuniary value, or who conspires to do so, shall be imprisoned for not more than ten years; and if personal injury results, shall be imprisoned for not more than twenty years; and if death results, shall be punished by death or life imprisonment.

`(b) DEFINITION- As used in this section and section 507--

`(1) the term `anything of pecuniary value' means anything of value in the form of money, a negotiable instrument, a commercial interest, or anything else the primary significance of which is economic advantage; and

`(2) the term `facility of interstate or foreign commerce' includes means of transportation and communication.

`Sec. 507. Violent crimes in aid of racketeering activity

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever, as consideration for the receipt of, or as consideration for a promise or agreement to pay, anything of pecuniary value from an enterprise engaged in racketeering activity, or for the purpose of gaining entrance to or maintaining or increasing position in an enterprise engaged in racketeering activity, murders, kidnaps, maims, assaults with a dangerous weapon, commits assault resulting in serious bodily injury upon, or threatens to commit a crime of violence against any individual in violation of the laws of any State or the United States, or attempts or conspires so to do, shall be punished--

`(1) for murder, by death or life imprisonment; and for kidnapping, by imprisonment for any term of years or for life;

`(2) for maiming, by imprisonment for not more than thirty years;

`(3) for assault with a dangerous weapon or assault resulting in serious bodily injury, by imprisonment for not more than twenty years;

`(4) for threatening to commit a crime of violence, by imprisonment for not more than five years;

`(5) for attempting or conspiring to commit murder or kidnapping, by imprisonment for not more than ten years; and

`(6) for attempting or conspiring to commit a crime involving maiming, assault with a dangerous weapon, or assault resulting in serious bodily injury, by imprisonment for not more than three years.

`(b) DEFINITIONS- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `racketeering activity' has the meaning set forth in section 511; and

`(2) the term `enterprise' includes any partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity, and any union or group of individuals associated in fact although not a legal entity, which is engaged in, or the activities of which affect, interstate or foreign commerce.

`Sec. 508. Prohibition of unlicensed money transmitting businesses

`(a) OFFENSE- Whoever knowingly conducts, controls, manages, supervises, directs, or owns all or part of an unlicensed money transmitting business, shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`(b) DEFINITION- As used in this section--

`(1) the term `unlicensed money transmitting business' means a money transmitting business which affects interstate or foreign commerce in any manner or degree and--

`(A) is operated without an appropriate money transmitting license in a State where such operation is punishable as a misdemeanor or a felony under State law, whether or not the defendant knew that the operation was required to be licensed or that the operation was so punishable;

`(B) fails to comply with the money transmitting business registration requirements under section 5330 of title 31, United States Code, or regulations prescribed under such section; or

`(C) otherwise involves the transportation or transmission of funds that are known to the defendant to have been derived from a criminal offense or are intended to be used to promote or support unlawful activity; and

`(2) the term `money transmitting' includes transferring funds on behalf of the public by any and all means including but not limited to transfers within this country or to locations abroad by wire, check, draft, facsimile, or courier.

`SUBCHAPTER B--RACKETEER INFLUENCED AND CORRUPT ORGANIZATIONS

`Sec.

`511. Definitions.

`512. Prohibited activities.

`513. Criminal penalties.

`514. Civil remedies.

`515. Venue and process.

`516. Expedition of actions.

`517. Evidence.

`518. Civil investigative demand.

`Sec. 511. Definitions

`As used in this subchapter--

`(1) the term `racketeering activity' means--

`(A) any act or threat involving murder, kidnapping, gambling, arson, robbery, bribery, extortion, dealing in obscene matter, or dealing in a controlled substance or listed chemical (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act), which is chargeable under State law and punishable by imprisonment for more than one year;

`(B) any act which is indictable under any of the following provisions of title 18, United States Code: Section 991 (relating to bribery), section 1007 (relating to sports bribery), sections 692, 693, and 694 (relating to counterfeiting), section 647 (relating to theft from interstate shipment) if the act indictable under section 647 is felonious, section 651 (relating to embezzlement from pension and welfare funds), sections 155, 156, 157, 159 (relating to extortionate credit transactions), section 783 (relating to fraud and related activity in connection with identification documents), section 784 (relating to fraud and related activity in connection with access devices), section 1381 (relating to the transmission of gambling information), section 801 (relating to mail fraud), section 803 (relating to wire fraud), section 804 (relating to financial institution fraud), section 325 (relating to the procurement of citizenship or nationalization unlawfully), section 316 (relating to the sale of naturalization or citizenship papers), 318 (relating to bringing in or harboring certain aliens), 321 (relating to aiding or assisting certain aliens to enter the United States), (if the violation of section 318 or 321 was committed for financial gain) sections 1441-1443 (relating to obscene matter), section 1132 (relating to obstruction of justice), section 1135 (relating to obstruction of criminal investigations), section 1137 (relating to the obstruction of State or local law enforcement), section 1138 (relating to tampering with a witness, victim, or an informant), section 1139 (relating to retaliating against a witness, victim, or an informant), section 311 (relating to false statement in application and use of passport), section 312 (relating to forgery or false use of passport), section 313 (relating to misuse of passport), section 314 (relating to fraud and misuse of visas, permits, and other documents), sections 1261-1266 (relating to peonage, slavery, and trafficking in persons), section 501 (relating to interference with commerce, robbery, or extortion), section 502 (relating to racketeering), section 503 (relating to interstate transportation of wagering paraphernalia), section 504 (relating to unlawful welfare fund payments), section 505 (relating to the prohibition of illegal gambling businesses), section 1451 (relating to the laundering of monetary instruments), section 1452 (relating to engaging in monetary transactions in property derived from specified unlawful activity), section 506 (relating to use of interstate commerce facilities in the commission of murder-for-hire), section 508 (relating to prohibition of unlicensed money transmitting businesses), sections 221, 222, and 223 (relating to sexual exploitation of children), sections 671 and 672 (relating to interstate transportation of stolen motor vehicles), sections 674 and 675 (relating to interstate transportation of stolen property), section 676 (relating to trafficking in counterfeit labels for phonorecords, computer programs or computer program documentation or packaging and copies of motion pictures or other audiovisual works), section 678 (relating to criminal infringement of a copyright), section 679 (relating to unauthorized fixation of and trafficking in sound recordings and music videos of live musical performances), section 680 (relating to trafficking in goods or services bearing counterfeit marks), section 682 (relating to trafficking in certain motor vehicles or motor vehicle parts), sections 1411-1415 (relating to trafficking in contraband cigarettes), sections 211-214 (relating to white slave traffic), sections 621-627 (relating to biological weapons), sections 363 (relating to chemical weapons), section 601 (relating to nuclear materials);

`(C) any act which is indictable under section 302 of the Labor Management Relations Act, 1947, section 186 (dealing with restrictions on payments and loans to labor organizations) or section 501(c) (relating to embezzlement from union funds);

`(D) any offense involving fraud connected with a case under title 11 (except a case under section 875 of this title), fraud in the sale of securities, or the felonious manufacture, importation, receiving, concealment, buying, selling, or otherwise dealing in a controlled substance or listed chemical (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act), punishable under any law of the United States;

`(E) any act which is indictable under the Currency and Foreign Transactions Reporting Act;

`(F) any act which is indictable under section 278 of the Immigration and Nationality Act, if the act indictable under such section of such Act was committed for the purpose of financial gain; or

`(G) any act that is indictable under any provision listed in section 274(g)(5)(B);

`(2) the term `person' includes any individual or entity capable of holding a legal or beneficial interest in property;

`(3) the term `enterprise' includes any individual, partnership, corporation, association, or other legal entity, and any union or group of individuals associated in fact although not a legal entity;

`(4) the term `pattern of racketeering activity' requires at least two acts of racketeering activity, one of which occurred after October 15, 1970 and the last of which occurred within ten years (excluding any period of imprisonment) after the commission of a prior act of racketeering activity;

`(5) the term `unlawful debt' means a debt--

`(A) incurred or contracted in gambling activity which was in violation of the law of the United States, a State or political subdivision thereof, or which is unenforceable under State or Federal law in whole or in part as to principal or interest because of the laws relating to usury; and

`(B) which was incurred in connection with the business of gambling in violation of the law of the United States, a State or political subdivision thereof, or the business of lending money or a thing of value at a rate usurious under State or Federal law, where the usurious rate is at least twice the enforceable rate;

`(6) the term `racketeering investigator' means any attorney or investigator so designated by the Attorney General and charged with the duty of enforcing or carrying into effect this chapter;

`(7) the term `racketeering investigation' means any inquiry conducted by any racketeering investigator for the purpose of ascertaining whether any person has been involved in any violation of this subchapter or of any final order, judgment, or decree of any court of the United States, duly entered in any case or proceeding arising under this subchapter;

`(8) the term `documentary material' includes any book, paper, document, record, recording, or other material; and

`(9) the term `Attorney General' includes the Attorney General of the United States, the Deputy Attorney General of the United States, the Associate Attorney General of the United States, any Assistant Attorney General of the United States, or any employee of the Department of Justice or any employee of any department or agency of the United States so designated by the Attorney General to carry out the powers conferred on the Attorney General by this chapter, and any department or agency so designated may use in investigations authorized by this subchapter either the investigative provisions of this subchapter or the investigative power of such department or agency otherwise conferred by law.

`Sec. 512. Prohibited activities

`(a) USING OR INVESTING PROCEEDS- It shall be unlawful for any person who has received any income derived, directly or indirectly, from a pattern of racketeering activity or through collection of an unlawful debt in which such person has participated as a principal within the meaning of section 2, title 18, United States Code, to use or invest, directly or indirectly, any part of such income, or the proceeds of such income, in acquisition of any interest in, or the establishment or operation of, any enterprise which is engaged in, or the activities of which affect, interstate or foreign commerce. A purchase of securities on the open market for purposes of investment, and without the intention of controlling or participating in the control of the issuer, or of assisting another to do so, shall not be unlawful under this subsection if the securities of the issuer held by the purchaser, the members of his immediate family, and his or their accomplices in any pattern or racketeering activity or the collection of an unlawful debt after such purchase do not amount in the aggregate to one percent of the outstanding securities of any one class, and do not confer, either in law or in fact, the power to elect one or more directors of the issuer.

`(b) MAINTAINING INTEREST OR CONTROL- It shall be unlawful for any person through a pattern of racketeering activity or through collection of an unlawful debt to acquire or maintain, directly or indirectly, any interest in or control of any enterprise which is engaged in, or the activities of which affect, interstate or foreign commerce.

`(c) CONDUCTING AFFAIRS- It shall be unlawful for any person employed by or associated with any enterprise engaged in, or the activities of which affect, interstate or foreign commerce, to conduct or participate, directly or indirectly, in the conduct of such enterprise's affairs through a pattern of racketeering activity or collection of unlawful debt.

`(d) CONSPIRACIES- It shall be unlawful for any person to conspire to violate subsection (a), (b), or (c).

`Sec. 513. Criminal penalties

`Whoever violates section 512 shall be imprisoned not more than 20 years (or for life if the violation is based on a racketeering activity for which the maximum penalty includes life imprisonment).

`Sec. 514. Civil remedies

`(a) PREVENTION AND RESTRAINT OF VIOLATIONS- The district courts of the United States shall have jurisdiction to prevent and restrain violations of section 512 by issuing appropriate orders, including--

`(1) ordering any person to divest any interest in any enterprise; and

`(2) imposing reasonable restrictions on the future activities or investments of any person, including--

`(A) prohibiting that person from engaging in the same type of endeavor as the enterprise engaged in, the activities of which affect interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(B) ordering dissolution or reorganization of any enterprise, making due provision for the rights of innocent persons.

`(b) PRELIMINARY MATTERS- The Attorney General may institute proceedings under this section. Pending final determination thereof, the court may at any time enter such restraining orders or prohibitions, or take such other actions, including the acceptance of satisfactory performance bonds, as it shall deem proper.

`(c) PRIVATE RIGHT OF ACTION- Any person injured in his business or property by reason of a violation of section 512 may sue therefor in any appropriate United States district court and shall recover threefold the damages he sustains and the cost of the suit, including a reasonable attorney's fee, except that no person may rely upon any conduct that would have been actionable as fraud in the purchase or sale of securities to establish a violation of section 512. The exception contained in the preceding sentence does not apply to an action against any person that is criminally convicted in connection with the fraud, in which case the statute of limitations shall start to run on the date on which the conviction becomes final.

`(d) ESTOPPEL- A final judgment or decree rendered in favor of the United States in any criminal proceeding brought by the United States under this chapter shall estop the defendant from denying the essential allegations of the criminal offense in any subsequent civil proceeding brought by the United States.

`Sec. 515. Venue and process

`(a) VENUE- Any civil action or proceeding under this subchapter may be instituted in the district court of the United States for any district in which such person resides, is found, has an agent, or transacts his affairs.

`(b) SUMMONS- In any action under section 514 in any district court of the United States in which it is shown that the ends of justice require that other parties residing in any other district be brought before the court, the court may cause such parties to be summoned, and process for that purpose may be served in any judicial district of the United States by the marshal thereof.

`(c) SUBPOENAS- In any civil or criminal action or proceeding instituted by the United States under this subchapter in the district court of the United States for any judicial district, subpoenas issued by such court to compel the attendance of witnesses may be served in any other judicial district, except that in any civil action or proceeding no such subpena shall be issued for service upon any individual who resides in another district at a place more than one hundred miles from the place at which such court is held without approval given by a judge of such court upon a showing of good cause.

`(d) OTHER PROCESS- All other process in any action or proceeding under this subchapter may be served on any person in any judicial district in which such person resides, is found, has an agent, or transacts affairs.

`Sec. 516. Expedition of actions

`In any civil action instituted under this subchapter by the United States in any district court of the United States, the Attorney General may file with the clerk of such court a certificate stating that in the Attorney General's opinion the case is of general public importance. A copy of that certificate shall be furnished immediately by such clerk to the chief judge or, in the absence of the chief judge, to the presiding district judge of the district in which such action is pending. Upon receipt of such copy, such judge shall designate immediately a judge of that district to hear and determine the action.

`Sec. 517. Evidence

`In any proceeding ancillary to or in any civil action instituted by the United States under this subchapter the proceedings may be open or closed to the public at the discretion of the court after consideration of the rights of affected persons.

`Sec. 518. Civil investigative demand

`(a) ISSUANCE- If the Attorney General has reason to believe that any person or enterprise may be in possession, custody, or control of any documentary materials relevant to a racketeering investigation, the Attorney General may, before the institution of a civil or criminal proceeding thereon, issue in writing, and cause to be served upon such person, a civil investigative demand requiring such person to produce such material for examination.

`(b) CONTENTS- Each such demand shall--

`(1) state the nature of the conduct constituting the alleged racketeering violation which is under investigation and the provision of law applicable thereto;

`(2) describe the class or classes of documentary material produced thereunder with such definiteness and certainty as to permit such material to be fairly identified;

`(3) state that the demand is returnable forthwith or prescribe a return date which will provide a reasonable period of time within which the material so demanded may be assembled and made available for inspection and copying or reproduction; and

`(4) identify the custodian to whom such material shall be made available.

`(c) LIMITATION- No such demand shall--

`(1) contain any requirement which would be held to be unreasonable if contained in a subpena duces tecum issued by a court of the United States in aid of a grand jury investigation of such alleged racketeering violation; or

`(2) require the production of any documentary evidence which would be privileged from disclosure if demanded by a subpena duces tecum issued by a court of the United States in aid of a grand jury investigation of such alleged racketeering violation.

`(d) SERVICE- Service of any such demand or any petition filed under this section may be made upon a person by--

`(1) delivering a duly executed copy thereof to any partner, executive officer, managing agent, or general agent thereof, or to any agent thereof authorized by appointment or by law to receive service of process on behalf of such person, or upon any individual person;

`(2) delivering a duly executed copy thereof to the principal office or place of business of the person to be served; or

`(3) depositing such copy in the United States mail, by registered or certified mail duly addressed to such person at its principal office or place of business.

`(e) RETURN- A verified return by the individual serving any such demand or petition setting forth the manner of such service shall be prima facie proof of such service. In the case of service by registered or certified mail, such return shall be accompanied by the return post office receipt of delivery of such demand.

`(f) DOCUMENT CUSTODIAN-

`(1) The Attorney General shall designate a racketeering investigator to serve as racketeer document custodian, and such additional racketeering investigators as the Attorney General shall determine from time to time to be necessary to serve as deputies to such officer.

`(2) Any person upon whom any demand issued under this section has been duly served shall make such material available for inspection and copying or reproduction to the custodian designated therein at the principal place of business of such person, or at such other place as such custodian and such person thereafter may agree and prescribe in writing or as the court may direct, pursuant to this section on the return date specified in such demand, or on such later date as such custodian may prescribe in writing. Such person may upon written agreement between such person and the custodian substitute for copies of all or any part of such material originals thereof.

`(3) The custodian to whom any documentary material is so delivered shall take physical possession thereof, and shall be responsible for the use made thereof and for the return thereof pursuant to this chapter. The custodian may cause the preparation of such copies of such documentary material as may be required for official use under regulations which shall be promulgated by the Attorney General. While in the possession of the custodian, no material so produced shall be available for examination, without the consent of the person who produced such material, by any individual other than the Attorney General. Under such reasonable terms and conditions as the Attorney General shall prescribe, documentary material while in the possession of the custodian shall be available for examination by the person who produced such material or any duly authorized representatives of such person.

`(4) Whenever any attorney has been designated to appear on behalf of the United States before any court or grand jury in any case or proceeding involving any alleged violation of this chapter, the custodian may deliver to such attorney such documentary material in the possession of the custodian as such attorney determines to be required for use in the presentation of such case or proceeding on behalf of the United States. Upon the conclusion of any such case or proceeding, such attorney shall return to the custodian any documentary material so withdrawn which has not passed into the control of such court or grand jury through the introduction thereof into the record of such case or proceeding.

`(5) Upon the completion of--

`(A) the racketeering investigation for which any documentary material was produced under this subchapter, and

`(B) any case or proceeding arising from such investigation,

the custodian shall return to the person who produced such material all such material other than copies thereof made by the Attorney General pursuant to this subsection which has not passed into the control of any court or grand jury through the introduction thereof into the record of such case or proceeding.

`(6) When any documentary material has been produced by any person under this section for use in any racketeering investigation, and no such case or proceeding arising therefrom has been instituted within a reasonable time after completion of the examination and analysis of all evidence assembled in the course of such investigation, such person shall be entitled, upon written demand made upon the Attorney General, to the return of all documentary material other than copies thereof made pursuant to this subsection so produced by such person.

`(7) In the event of the death, disability, or separation from service of the custodian of any documentary material produced under any demand issued under this section or the official relief of such custodian from responsibility for the custody and control of such material, the Attorney General shall promptly--

`(A) designate another racketeering investigator to serve as custodian thereof, and

`(B) transmit notice in writing to the person who produced such material as to the identity and address of the successor so designated.

Any successor so designated shall have with regard to such materials all duties and responsibilities imposed by this section upon the predecessor custodian with regard thereto, except that he shall not be held responsible for any default or dereliction which occurred before the successor's designation as custodian.

`(g) ENFORCEMENT PETITION- Whenever any person fails to comply with any civil investigative demand duly served upon him under this section or whenever satisfactory copying or reproduction of any such material cannot be done and such person refuses to surrender such material, the Attorney General may file, in the district court of the United States for any judicial district in which such person resides, is found, or transacts business, and serve upon such person a petition for an order of such court for the enforcement of this section, except that if such person transacts business in more than one such district such petition shall be filed in the district in which such person maintains his principal place of business, or in such other district in which such person transacts business as may be agreed upon by the parties to such petition.

`(h) MODIFICATION OR SETTING ASIDE- Within 20 days after the service of any such demand upon any person, or at any time before the return date specified in the demand, whichever period is shorter, such person may file, in the district court of the United States for the judicial district within which such person resides, is found, or transacts business, and serve upon such custodian a petition for an order of such court modifying or setting aside such demand. The time allowed for compliance with the demand in whole or in part as deemed proper and ordered by the court shall not run during the pendency of such petition in the court. Such petition shall specify each ground upon which the petitioner relies in seeking such relief, and may be based upon any failure of such demand to comply with the provisions of this section or upon any constitutional or other legal right or privilege of such person.

`(i) ORDERING CUSTODIAN TO PERFORM DUTY- At any time during which any custodian is in custody or control of any documentary material delivered by any person in compliance with any such demand, such person may file, in the district court of the United States for the judicial district within which the office of such custodian is situated, and serve upon such custodian a petition for an order of such court requiring the performance by such custodian of any duty imposed upon him by this section.

`(j) JURISDICTION- Whenever any petition is filed in any district court of the United States under this section, such court shall have jurisdiction to hear and determine the matter so presented, and to enter such order or orders as may be required to carry into effect the provisions of this section.

`SUBCHAPTER C--CRIMINAL STREET GANGS

`Sec.

`521. Criminal street gangs.

`Sec. 521. Criminal street gangs

`(a) Definitions- In this section--

`(1) the term `conviction' includes a finding, under State or Federal law, that a person has committed an act of juvenile delinquency involving a violent or controlled substances felony; and

`(2) the term `criminal street gang' means an ongoing group, club, organization, or association of 5 or more persons--

`(A) that has as 1 of its primary purposes the commission of 1 or more of the criminal offenses described in subsection (c);

`(B) the members of which engage, or have engaged within the past 5 years, in a continuing series of offenses described in subsection (c); and

`(C) the activities of which affect interstate or foreign commerce.

`(b) Penalty- The sentence of a person convicted of an offense described in subsection (c) shall be increased by not more than 10 years if the offense is committed under the circumstances described in subsection (d).

`(c) Offenses- The offenses described in this section are--

`(1) a Federal felony involving a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)) for which the maximum penalty is not less than 5 years;

`(2) a Federal felony crime of violence that has as an element the use or attempted use of physical force against the person of another; and

`(3) a conspiracy to commit an offense described in paragraph (1) or (2).

`(d) Circumstances- The circumstances described in this section are that the offense described in subsection (c) was committed by a person who--

`(1) participates in a criminal street gang with knowledge that its members engage in or have engaged in a continuing series of offenses described in subsection (c);

`(2) intends to promote or further the felonious activities of the criminal street gang or maintain or increase his or her position in the gang; and

`(3) has been convicted within the past 5 years for--

`(A) an offense described in subsection (c);

`(B) a State offense--

`(i) involving a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)) for which the maximum penalty is not less than 5 years' imprisonment; or

`(ii) that is a felony crime of violence that has as an element the use or attempted use of physical force against the person of another;

`(C) any Federal or State felony offense that by its nature involves a substantial risk that physical force against the person of another may be used in the course of committing the offense; or

`(D) a conspiracy to commit an offense described in subparagraph (A), (B), or (C).

`CHAPTER 21--ARSON, FIREARMS, EXPLOSIVES, AND WEAPONS CRIMES

`Subchapter

--Sec.

571

581

601

611

621

631

`SUBCHAPTER A--ARSON

`Sec.

`571. Arson within special maritime and territorial jurisdiction.

`Sec. 571. Arson within special maritime and territorial jurisdiction

`Whoever, within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, willfully and maliciously sets fire to or burns any building, structure or vessel, any machinery or building materials or supplies, military or naval stores, munitions of war, or any structural aids or appliances for navigation or shipping, or attempts or conspires to do such an act, shall be imprisoned for not more than 25 years. If the building is a dwelling or if the life of any person is placed in jeopardy, the offender shall be imprisoned for any term of years or for life.

`SUBCHAPTER B--FIREARMS

`Sec.

`581. Definitions.

`582. Unlawful acts.

`583. Licensing.

`584. Penalties.

`585. Exceptions: Relief from disabilities.

`586. Remedy for erroneous denial of firearm.

`587. Rules and regulations.

`588. Interstate transportation of firearms.

`589. Carrying of concealed firearms by qualified law enforcement officers.

`590. Carrying of concealed firearms by qualified retired law enforcement officers.

`591. Effect on State law.

`592. Use of restricted ammunition.

`593. Possession of firearms and dangerous weapons in Federal facilities.

`594. Prohibition on purchase, ownership, or possession of body armor by violent felons.

`Sec. 581. Definitions

`For the purposes of this subchapter--

`(1) The term `firearm' means (A) any weapon (including a starter gun) which will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel a projectile by the action of an explosive; (B) the frame or receiver of any such weapon; (C) any firearm muffler or firearm silencer; or (D) any destructive device. Such term does not include an antique firearm.

`(2) The term `destructive device' means--

`(A) any explosive, incendiary, or poison gas--

`(i) bomb,

`(ii) grenade,

`(iii) rocket having a propellant charge of more than four ounces,

`(iv) missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than one-quarter ounce,

`(v) mine, or

`(vi) device similar to any of the devices described in the preceding clauses;

`(B) any type of weapon (other than a shotgun or a shotgun shell which the Attorney General finds is generally recognized as particularly suitable for sporting purposes) by whatever name known which will, or which may be readily converted to, expel a projectile by the action of an explosive or other propellant, and which has any barrel with a bore of more than one-half inch in diameter; and

`(C) any combination of parts either designed or intended for use in converting any device into any destructive device described in subparagraph (A) or (B) and from which a destructive device may be readily assembled.

Such term does not include any device which is neither designed nor redesigned for use as a weapon; any device, although originally designed for use as a weapon, which is redesigned for use as a signaling, pyrotechnic, line throwing, safety, or similar device; surplus ordnance sold, loaned, or given by the Secretary of the Army pursuant to the provisions of section 4684(2), 4685, or 4686 of title 10; or any other device which the Attorney General finds is not likely to be used as a weapon, is an antique, or is a rifle which the owner intends to use solely for sporting, recreational or cultural purposes.

`(3) The term `shotgun' means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned and made or remade to use the energy of an explosive to fire through a smooth bore either a number of ball shot or a single projectile for each single pull of the trigger.

`(4) The term `short-barreled shotgun' means a shotgun having one or more barrels less than eighteen inches in length and any weapon made from a shotgun (whether by alteration, modification or otherwise) if such a weapon as modified has an overall length of less than twenty-six inches.

`(5) The term `rifle' means a weapon designed or redesigned, made or remade, and intended to be fired from the shoulder and designed or redesigned and made or remade to use the energy of an explosive to fire only a single projectile through a rifled bore for each single pull of the trigger.

`(6) The term `short-barreled rifle' means a rifle having one or more barrels less than sixteen inches in length and any weapon made from a rifle (whether by alteration, modification, or otherwise) if such weapon, as modified, has an overall length of less than twenty-six inches.

`(7) The term `importer' means any person engaged in the business of importing or bringing firearms or ammunition into the United States for purposes of sale or distribution; and the term `licensed importer' means any such person licensed under the provisions of this chapter.

`(8) The term `manufacturer' means any person engaged in the business of manufacturing firearms or ammunition for purposes of sale or distribution; and the term `licensed manufacturer' means any such person licensed under the provisions of this chapter.

`(9) The term `dealer' means (A) any person engaged in the business of selling firearms at wholesale or retail, (B) any person engaged in the business of repairing firearms or of making or fitting special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms, or (C) any person who is a pawnbroker. The term `licensed dealer' means any dealer who is licensed under the provisions of this chapter.

`(10) The term `pawnbroker' means any person whose business or occupation includes the taking or receiving, by way of pledge or pawn, of any firearm as security for the payment or repayment of money.

`(11) The term `collector' means any person who acquires, holds, or disposes of firearms as curios or relics, as the Attorney General shall by regulation define, and the term `licensed collector' means any such person licensed under the provisions of this chapter.

`(12) The term `indictment' includes an indictment or information in any court under which a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year may be prosecuted.

`(13) The term `fugitive from justice' means any person who has fled from any State to avoid prosecution for a crime or to avoid giving testimony in any criminal proceeding.

`(14) The term `antique firearm' means--

`(A) any firearm (including any firearm with a matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system) manufactured in or before 1898; or

`(B) any replica of any firearm described in subparagraph (A) if such replica--

`(i) is not designed or redesigned for using rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition; or

`(ii) uses rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition which is no longer manufactured in the United States and which is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade; or

`(C) any muzzle loading rifle, muzzle loading shotgun, or muzzle loading pistol, which is designed to use black powder, or a black powder substitute, and which cannot use fixed ammunition. For purposes of this subparagraph, the term `antique firearm' shall not include any weapon which incorporates a firearm frame or receiver, any firearm which is converted into a muzzle loading weapon, or any muzzle loading weapon which can be readily converted to fire fixed ammunition by replacing the barrel, bolt, breechblock, or any combination thereof.

`(15)(A) The term `ammunition' means ammunition or cartridge cases, primers, bullets, or propellent powder designed for use in any firearm.

`(B) The term `armor piercing ammunition' means--

`(i) a projectile or projectile core which may be used in a handgun and which is constructed entirely (excluding the presence of traces of other substances) from one or a combination of tungsten alloys, steel, iron, brass, bronze, beryllium copper, or depleted uranium; or

`(ii) a full jacketed projectile larger than .22 caliber designed and intended for use in a handgun and whose jacket has a weight of more than 25 percent of the total weight of the projectile.

`(C) The term `armor piercing ammunition' does not include shotgun shot required by Federal or State environmental or game regulations for hunting purposes, a frangible projectile designed for target shooting, a projectile which the Attorney General finds is primarily intended to be used for sporting purposes, or any other projectile or projectile core which the Attorney General finds is intended to be used for industrial purposes, including a charge used in an oil and gas well perforating device.

`(16) The term `published ordinance' means a published law of any political subdivision of a State which the Attorney General determines to be relevant to the enforcement of this chapter and which is contained on a list compiled by the Attorney General, which list shall be published in the Federal Register, revised annually, and furnished to each licensee under this chapter.

`(17) The term `crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year' does not include--

`(A) any Federal or State offenses pertaining to antitrust violations, unfair trade practices, restraints of trade, or other similar offenses relating to the regulation of business practices, or

`(B) any State offense classified by the laws of the State as a misdemeanor and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less.

What constitutes a conviction of such a crime shall be determined in accordance with the law of the jurisdiction in which the proceedings were held. Any conviction which has been expunged, or set aside or for which a person has been pardoned or has had civil rights restored shall not be considered a conviction for purposes of this chapter, unless such pardon, expungement, or restoration of civil rights expressly provides that the person may not ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms.

`(18) The term `engaged in the business' means--

`(A) as applied to a manufacturer of firearms, a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to manufacturing firearms as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit through the sale or distribution of the firearms manufactured;

`(B) as applied to a manufacturer of ammunition, a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to manufacturing ammunition as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit through the sale or distribution of the ammunition manufactured;

`(C) as applied to a dealer in firearms, as defined in section 921(a)(11)(A), a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to dealing in firearms as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit through the repetitive purchase and resale of firearms, but such term shall not include a person who makes occasional sales, exchanges, or purchases of firearms for the enhancement of a personal collection or for a hobby, or who sells all or part of his personal collection of firearms;

`(D) as applied to a dealer in firearms, as defined in section 921(a)(11)(B), a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to engaging in such activity as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit, but such term shall not include a person who makes occasional repairs of firearms, or who occasionally fits special barrels, stocks, or trigger mechanisms to firearms;

`(E) as applied to an importer of firearms, a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to importing firearms as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit through the sale or distribution of the firearms imported; and

`(F) as applied to an importer of ammunition, a person who devotes time, attention, and labor to importing ammunition as a regular course of trade or business with the principal objective of livelihood and profit through the sale or distribution of the ammunition imported.

`(19) The term `with the principal objective of livelihood and profit' means that the intent underlying the sale or disposition of firearms is predominantly one of obtaining livelihood and pecuniary gain, as opposed to other intents, such as improving or liquidating a personal firearms collection: Provided, That proof of profit shall not be required as to a person who engages in the regular and repetitive purchase and disposition of firearms for criminal purposes or terrorism. For purposes of this paragraph, the term `terrorism' means activity, directed against United States persons, which--

`(A) is committed by an individual who is not a national or permanent resident alien of the United States;

`(B) involves violent acts or acts dangerous to human life which would be a criminal violation if committed within the jurisdiction of the United States; and

`(C) is intended--

`(i) to intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

`(ii) to influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion; or

`(iii) to affect the conduct of a government by assassination or kidnapping.

`(20) The term `machinegun' has the meaning given such term in section 5845(b) of the National Firearms Act (26 U.S.C. 5845(b)).

`(21) The terms `firearm silencer' and `firearm muffler' mean any device for silencing, muffling, or diminishing the report of a portable firearm, including any combination of parts, designed or redesigned, and intended for use in assembling or fabricating a firearm silencer or firearm muffler, and any part intended only for use in such assembly or fabrication.

`(22) The term `school zone' means--

`(A) in, or on the grounds of, a public, parochial or private school; or

`(B) within a distance of 1,000 feet from the grounds of a public, parochial or private school.

`(23) The term `school' means a school which provides elementary or secondary education, as determined under State law.

`(24) The term `motor vehicle' has the meaning given such term in section 13102 of title 49, United States Code.

`(25) The term `semiautomatic rifle' means any repeating rifle which utilizes a portion of the energy of a firing cartridge to extract the fired cartridge case and chamber the next round, and which requires a separate pull of the trigger to fire each cartridge.

`(26) The term `handgun' means--

`(A) a firearm which has a short stock and is designed to be held and fired by the use of a single hand; and

`(B) any combination of parts from which a firearm described in subparagraph (A) can be assembled.

`(27) The term `intimate partner' means, with respect to a person, the spouse of the person, a former spouse of the person, an individual who is a parent of a child of the person, and an individual who cohabitates or has cohabited with the person.

`(28)(A) The term `misdemeanor crime of domestic violence' means an offense that--

`(i) is a misdemeanor under Federal, State, or Tribal law; and

`(ii) has, as an element, the use or attempted use of physical force, or the threatened use of a deadly weapon, committed by a current or former spouse, parent, or guardian of the victim, by a person with whom the victim shares a child in common, by a person who is cohabiting with or has cohabited with the victim as a spouse, parent, or guardian, or by a person similarly situated to a spouse, parent, or guardian of the victim.

`(B)(i) A person shall not be considered to have been convicted of such an offense for purposes of this chapter, unless--

`(I) the person was represented by counsel in the case, or knowingly and intelligently waived the right to counsel in the case; and

`(II) in the case of a prosecution for an offense described in this paragraph for which a person was entitled to a jury trial in the jurisdiction in which the case was tried, either--

`(aa) the case was tried by a jury; or

`(bb) the person knowingly and intelligently waived the right to have the case tried by a jury, by guilty plea or otherwise.

`(ii) A person shall not be considered to have been convicted of such an offense for purposes of this chapter if the conviction has been expunged or set aside, or is an offense for which the person has been pardoned or has had civil rights restored (if the law of the applicable jurisdiction provides for the loss of civil rights under such an offense) unless the pardon, expungement, or restoration of civil rights expressly provides that the person may not ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms.

`(29) The term `secure gun storage or safety device' means--

`(A) a device that, when installed on a firearm, is designed to prevent the firearm from being operated without first deactivating the device;

`(B) a device incorporated into the design of the firearm that is designed to prevent the operation of the firearm by anyone not having access to the device; or

`(C) a safe, gun safe, gun case, lock box, or other device that is designed to be or can be used to store a firearm and that is designed to be unlocked only by means of a key, a combination, or other similar means.

`(30) The term `body armor' means any product sold or offered for sale, in interstate or foreign commerce, as personal protective body covering intended to protect against gunfire, regardless of whether the product is to be worn alone or is sold as a complement to another product or garment.

`(31) A member of the Armed Forces on active duty is a resident of the State in which his permanent duty station is located.

`Sec. 582. Unlawful acts

`(a) It shall be unlawful--

`(1) for any person--

`(A) except a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer, to engage in the business of importing, manufacturing, or dealing in firearms, or in the course of such business to ship, transport, or receive any firearm in interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(B) except a licensed importer or licensed manufacturer, to engage in the business of importing or manufacturing ammunition, or in the course of such business, to ship, transport, or receive any ammunition in interstate or foreign commerce;

`(2) for any importer, manufacturer, dealer, or collector licensed under the provisions of this chapter to ship or transport in interstate or foreign commerce any firearm to any person other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector, except that--

`(A) this paragraph and subsection (b)(3) shall not be held to preclude a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector from returning a firearm or replacement firearm of the same kind and type to a person from whom it was received; and this paragraph shall not be held to preclude an individual from mailing a firearm owned in compliance with Federal, State, and local law to a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector;

`(B) this paragraph shall not be held to preclude a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer from depositing a firearm for conveyance in the mails to any officer, employee, agent, or watchman who, pursuant to the provisions of section 1715 of this title, is eligible to receive through the mails pistols, revolvers, and other firearms capable of being concealed on the person, for use in connection with his official duty; and

`(C) nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as applying in any manner in the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any possession of the United States differently than it would apply if the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or the possession were in fact a State of the United States;

`(3) for any person, other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector to transport into or receive in the State where he resides (or if the person is a corporation or other business entity, the State where it maintains a place of business) any fire arm purchased or otherwise obtained by such person outside that State, except that this paragraph (A) shall not preclude any person who lawfully acquires a firearm by bequest or intestate succession in a State other than his State of residence from transporting the firearm into or receiving it in that State, if it is lawful for such person to purchase or possess such firearm in that State, (B) shall not apply to the transportation or receipt of a firearm obtained in conformity with subsection (b)(3) of this section, and (C) shall not apply to the transportation of any firearm acquired in any State prior to the effective date of this chapter;

`(4) for any person, other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector, to transport in interstate or foreign commerce any destructive device, machinegun (as defined in section 5845 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986), short-barreled shotgun, or short-barreled rifle, except as specifically authorized by the Attorney General consistent with public safety and necessity;

`(5) for any person (other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector) to transfer, sell, trade, give, transport, or deliver any firearm to any person (other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector) who the transferor knows or has reasonable cause to believe does not reside in (or if the person is a corporation or other business entity, does not maintain a place of business in) the State in which the transferor resides; except that this paragraph shall not apply to (A) the transfer, transportation, or delivery of a firearm made to carry out a bequest of a firearm to, or an acquisition by intestate succession of a firearm by, a person who is permitted to acquire or possess a firearm under the laws of the State of his residence, and (B) the loan or rental of a firearm to any person for temporary use for lawful sporting purposes;

`(6) for any person in connection with the acquisition or attempted acquisition of any firearm or ammunition from a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector, knowingly to make any false or fictitious oral or written statement or to furnish or exhibit any false, fictitious, or misrepresented identification, intended or likely to deceive such importer, manufacturer, dealer, or collector with respect to any fact material to the lawfulness of the sale or other disposition of such firearm or ammunition under the provisions of this chapter;

`(7) for any person to manufacture or import armor piercing ammunition, unless--

`(A) the manufacture of such ammunition is for the use of the United States, any department or agency of the United States, any State, or any department, agency, or political subdivision of a State;

`(B) the manufacture of such ammunition is for the purpose of exportation; or

`(C) the manufacture or importation of such ammunition is for the purpose of testing or experimentation and has been authorized by the Attorney General;

`(8) for any manufacturer or importer to sell or deliver armor piercing ammunition, unless such sale or delivery--

`(A) is for the use of the United States, any department or agency of the United States, any State, or any department, agency, or political subdivision of a State;

`(B) is for the purpose of exportation; or

`(C) is for the purpose of testing or experimentation and has been authorized by the Attorney General; and

`(9) for any person, other than a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector, who does not reside in any State to receive any firearms unless such receipt is for lawful sporting purposes.

`(b) It shall be unlawful for any licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector to sell or deliver--

`(1) any firearm or ammunition to any individual who the licensee knows or has reasonable cause to believe is less than eighteen years of age, and, if the firearm, or ammunition is other than a shotgun or rifle, or ammunition for a shotgun or rifle, to any individual who the licensee knows or has reasonable cause to believe is less than twenty-one years of age;

`(2) any firearm to any person in any State where the purchase or possession by such person of such firearm would be in violation of any State law or any published ordinance applicable at the place of sale, delivery or other disposition, unless the licensee knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the purchase or possession would not be in violation of such State law or such published ordinance;

`(3) any firearm to any person who the licensee knows or has reasonable cause to believe does not reside in (or if the person is a corporation or other business entity, does not maintain a place of business in) the State in which the licensee's place of business is located, except that this paragraph (A) shall not apply to the sale or delivery of any rifle or shotgun to a resident of a State other than a State in which the licensee's place of business is located if the transferee meets in person with the transferor to accomplish the transfer, and the sale, delivery, and receipt fully comply with the legal conditions of sale in both such States (and any licensed manufacturer, importer or dealer shall be presumed, for purposes of this subparagraph, in the absence of evidence to the contrary, to have had actual knowledge of the State laws and published ordinances of both States), and (B) shall not apply to the loan or rental of a firearm to any person for temporary use for lawful sporting purposes;

`(4) to any person any destructive device, machinegun (as defined in section 5845 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986), short-barreled shotgun, or short-barreled rifle, except as specifically authorized by the Attorney General consistent with public safety and necessity; and

`(5) any firearm or armor-piercing ammunition to any person unless the licensee notes in his records, required to be kept pursuant to section 923 of this chapter, the name, age, and place of residence of such person if the person is an individual, or the identity and principal and local places of business of such person if the person is a corporation or other business entity.

Paragraphs (1), (2), (3), and (4) of this subsection shall not apply to transactions between licensed importers, licensed manufacturers, licensed dealers, and licensed collectors. Paragraph (4) of this subsection shall not apply to a sale or delivery to any research organization designated by the Attorney General.

`(c) In any case not otherwise prohibited by this chapter, a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer may sell a firearm to a person who does not appear in person at the licensee's business premises (other than another licensed importer, manufacturer, or dealer) only if--

`(1) the transferee submits to the transferor a sworn statement in the following form:

`Subject to penalties provided by law, I swear that, in the case of any firearm other than a shotgun or a rifle, I am twenty-one years or more of age, or that, in the case of a shotgun or a rifle, I am eighteen years or more of age; that I am not prohibited by the provisions of chapter 44 of title 18, United States Code, from receiving a firearm in interstate or foreign commerce; and that my receipt of this firearm will not be in violation of any statute of the State and published ordinance applicable to the locality in which I reside. Further, the true title, name, and address of the principal law enforcement officer of the locality to which the firearm will be delivered are -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- Signature -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- -- Date -- -- -- --.' and containing blank spaces for the attachment of a true copy of any permit or other information required pursuant to such statute or published ordinance;

`(2) the transferor has, prior to the shipment or delivery of the firearm, forwarded by registered or certified mail (return receipt requested) a copy of the sworn statement, together with a description of the firearm, in a form prescribed by the Attorney General, to the chief law enforcement officer of the transferee's place of residence, and has received a return receipt evidencing delivery of the statement or has had the statement returned due to the refusal of the named addressee to accept such letter in accordance with United States Post Office Department regulations; and

`(3) the transferor has delayed shipment or delivery for a period of at least seven days following receipt of the notification of the acceptance or refusal of delivery of the statement.

A copy of the sworn statement and a copy of the notification to the local law enforcement officer, together with evidence of receipt or rejection of that notification shall be retained by the licensee as a part of the records required to be kept under section 923(g).

`(d) It shall be unlawful for any person to sell or otherwise dispose of any firearm or ammunition to any person knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that such person--

`(1) is under indictment for, or has been convicted in any court of, a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

`(2) is a fugitive from justice;

`(3) is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802));

`(4) has been adjudicated as a mental defective or has been committed to any mental institution;

`(5) is an alien and--

`(A) is illegally or unlawfully in the United States; or

`(B) except as provided in subsection (y)(2), has been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa (as that term is defined in section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26)));

`(6) has been discharged from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions;

`(7) was a citizen of the United States, and has renounced that citizenship;

`(8) is subject to a court order that restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child, except that this paragraph shall only apply to a court order that--

`(A) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had the opportunity to participate; and

`(B)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or

`(ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury; or

`(9) has been convicted in any court of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence.

This subsection does not apply with respect to the sale or disposition of a firearm or ammunition to a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector who pursuant to subsection (b) of section 585 is not precluded from dealing in firearms or ammunition, or to a person who has been granted relief from disabilities pursuant to subsection (c) of section 585.

`(e) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to deliver or cause to be delivered to any common or contract carrier for transportation or shipment in interstate or foreign commerce, to persons other than licensed importers, licensed manufacturers, licensed dealers, or licensed collectors, any package or other container in which there is any firearm or ammunition without written notice to the carrier that such firearm or ammunition is being transported or shipped; except that any passenger who owns or legally possesses a firearm or ammunition being transported aboard any common or contract carrier for movement with the passenger in interstate or foreign commerce may deliver said firearm or ammunition into the custody of the pilot, captain, conductor or operator of such common or contract carrier for the duration of the trip without violating any of the provisions of this chapter. No common or contract carrier shall require or cause any label, tag, or other written notice to be placed on the outside of any package, luggage, or other container that such package, luggage, or other container contains a firearm.

`(f)(1) It shall be unlawful for any common or contract carrier to transport or deliver in interstate or foreign commerce any firearm or ammunition with knowledge or reasonable cause to believe that the shipment transportation, or receipt thereof would be in violation of this chapter.

`(2) It shall be unlawful for any common or contract carrier to deliver in interstate or foreign commerce any firearm without obtaining written acknowledgement of receipt from the recipient of the package or other container in which there is a firearm.

`(g) It shall be unlawful for any person--

`(1) who has been convicted in any court of, a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year;

`(2) who is a fugitive from justice;

`(3) who is an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802));

`(4) who has been adjudicated as a mental defective or who has been committed to a mental institution;

`(5) who, being an alien--

`(A) is illegally or unlawfully in the United States; or

`(6) who has been discharged from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions;

`(7) who, having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced his citizenship;

`(8) who is subject to a court order that--

`(A) was issued after a hearing of which such person received actual notice, and at which such person had an opportunity to participate;

`(B) restrains such person from harassing, stalking, or threatening an intimate partner of such person or child of such intimate partner or person, or engaging in other conduct that would place an intimate partner in reasonable fear of bodily injury to the partner or child; and

`(C)(i) includes a finding that such person represents a credible threat to the physical safety of such intimate partner or child; or

`(ii) by its terms explicitly prohibits the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against such intimate partner or child that would reasonably be expected to cause bodily injury; or

`(9) who has been convicted in any court of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence,

to ship or transport in interstate or foreign commerce, or possess in or affecting commerce, any firearm or ammunition; or to receive any firearm or ammunition which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce.

`(h) It shall be unlawful for any individual, who to that individual's knowledge and while being employed for any person described in any paragraph of subsection (g) of this section, in the course of such employment--

`(1) to receive, possess, or transport any firearm or ammunition in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce; or

`(2) to receive any firearm or ammunition which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce.

`(i) It shall be unlawful for any person to transport or ship in interstate or foreign commerce, any stolen firearms or stolen ammunition, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the firearm or ammunition was stolen.

`(j) It shall be unlawful for any person to receive, possess, conceal, store, barter, sell, or dispose of any stolen firearm or stolen ammunition, or pledge or accept as security for a loan any stolen firearm or stolen ammunition, which is moving as, which is a part of, which constitutes, or which has been shipped or transported in, interstate or foreign commerce, either before or after it was stolen, knowing or having reasonable cause to believe that the firearm or ammunition was stolen.

`(k) It shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to transport, ship, or receive, in interstate or foreign commerce, any firearm which has had the importer's or manufacturer's serial number removed, obliterated, or altered or to possess or receive any firearm which has had the importer's or manufacturer's serial number removed, obliterated, or altered and has, at any time, been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce.

`(l) Except as provided in section 585(d), it shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to import or bring into the United States or any possession thereof any firearm or ammunition; and it shall be unlawful for any person knowingly to receive any firearm or ammunition which has been imported or brought into the United States or any possession thereof in violation of the provisions of this chapter.

`(m) It shall be unlawful for any licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector knowingly to make any false entry in, to fail to make appropriate entry in, or to fail to properly maintain, any record which he is required to keep pursuant to section 583 or regulations promulgated thereunder.

`(n) It shall be unlawful for any person who is under indictment for a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year to ship or transport in interstate or foreign commerce any firearm or ammunition or receive any firearm or ammunition which has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce.

`(o)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful for any person to transfer or possess a machinegun.

`(2) This subsection does not apply with respect to--

`(A) a transfer to or by, or possession by or under the authority of, the United States or any department or agency thereof or a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision thereof; or

`(B) any lawful transfer or lawful possession of a machinegun that was lawfully possessed before the date this subsection takes effect.

`(p)(1) It shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture, import, sell, ship, deliver, possess, transfer, or receive any firearm--

`(A) that, after removal of grips, stocks, and magazines, is not as detectable as the Security Exemplar, by walk-through metal detectors calibrated and operated to detect the Security Exemplar; or

`(B) any major component of which, when subjected to inspection by the types of x-ray machines commonly used at airports, does not generate an image that accurately depicts the shape of the component. Barium sulfate or other compounds may be used in the fabrication of the component.

`(2) For purposes of this subsection--

`(A) the term `firearm' does not include the frame or receiver of any such weapon;

`(B) the term `major component' means, with respect to a firearm, the barrel, the slide or cylinder, or the frame or receiver of the firearm; and

`(C) the term `Security Exemplar' means an object, to be fabricated at the direction of the Attorney General, that is--

`(i) constructed of, during the 12-month period beginning on the date of the enactment of this subsection, 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH stainless steel in a shape resembling a handgun; and

`(ii) suitable for testing and calibrating metal detectors: Provided, however, That at the close of such 12-month period, and

at appropriate times thereafter the Attorney General shall promulgate regulations to permit the manufacture, importation, sale, shipment, delivery, possession, transfer, or receipt of firearms previously prohibited under this subparagraph that are as detectable as a `Security Exemplar' which contains 3.7 ounces of material type 17-4 PH stainless steel, in a shape resembling a handgun, or such lesser amount as is detectable in view of advances in state-of-the-art developments in weapons detection technology.

`(3) Under such rules and regulations as the Attorney General shall prescribe, this subsection shall not apply to the manufacture, possession, transfer, receipt, shipment, or delivery of a firearm by a licensed manufacturer or any person acting pursuant to a contract with a licensed manufacturer, for the purpose of examining and testing such firearm to determine whether paragraph (1) applies to such firearm. The Attorney General shall ensure that rules and regulations adopted pursuant to this paragraph do not impair the manufacture of prototype firearms or the development of new technology.

`(4) The Attorney General shall permit the conditional importation of a firearm by a licensed importer or licensed manufacturer, for examination and testing to determine whether or not the unconditional importation of such firearm would violate this subsection.

`(5) This subsection shall not apply to any firearm which--

`(A) has been certified by the Secretary of Defense or the Director of Central Intelligence, after consultation with the Attorney General and the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration, as necessary for military or intelligence applications; and

`(B) is manufactured for and sold exclusively to military or intelligence agencies of the United States.

`(6) This subsection shall not apply with respect to any firearm manufactured in, imported into, or possessed in the United States before the date of the enactment of the Undetectable Firearms Act of 1988.

`(q)(1) The Congress finds and declares that--

`(A) crime, particularly crime involving drugs and guns, is a pervasive, nationwide problem;

`(B) crime at the local level is exacerbated by the interstate movement of drugs, guns, and criminal gangs;

`(C) firearms and ammunition move easily in interstate commerce and have been found in increasing numbers in and around schools, as documented in numerous hearings in both the Committee on the Judiciary of the House of Representatives and the Committee on the Judiciary of the Senate;

`(D) in fact, even before the sale of a firearm, the gun, its component parts, ammunition, and the raw materials from which they are made have considerably moved in interstate commerce;

`(E) while criminals freely move from State to State, ordinary citizens and foreign visitors may fear to travel to or through certain parts of the country due to concern about violent crime and gun violence, and parents may decline to send their children to school for the same reason;

`(F) the occurrence of violent crime in school zones has resulted in a decline in the quality of education in our country;

`(G) this decline in the quality of education has an adverse impact on interstate commerce and the foreign commerce of the United States;

`(H) States, localities, and school systems find it almost impossible to handle gun-related crime by themselves--even States, localities, and school systems that have made strong efforts to prevent, detect, and punish gun-related crime find their efforts unavailing due in part to the failure or inability of other States or localities to take strong measures; and

`(I) the Congress has the power, under the interstate commerce clause and other provisions of the Constitution, to enact measures to ensure the integrity and safety of the Nation's schools by enactment of this subsection.

`(2)(A) It shall be unlawful for any individual knowingly to possess a firearm that has moved in or that otherwise affects interstate or foreign commerce at a place that the individual knows, or has reasonable cause to believe, is a school zone.

`(B) Subparagraph (A) does not apply to the possession of a firearm--

`(i) on private property not part of school grounds;

`(ii) if the individual possessing the firearm is licensed to do so by the State in which the school zone is located or a political subdivision of the State, and the law of the State or political subdivision requires that, before an individual obtains such a license, the law enforcement authorities of the State or political subdivision verify that the individual is qualified under law to receive the license;

`(iii) that is--

`(I) not loaded; and

`(II) in a locked container, or a locked firearms rack that is on a motor vehicle;

`(iv) by an individual for use in a program approved by a school in the school zone;

`(v) by an individual in accordance with a contract entered into between a school in the school zone and the individual or an employer of the individual;

`(vi) by a law enforcement officer acting in his or her official capacity; or

`(vii) that is unloaded and is possessed by an individual while traversing school premises for the purpose of gaining access to public or private lands open to hunting, if the entry on school premises is authorized by school authorities.

`(3)(A) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), it shall be unlawful for any person, knowingly or with reckless disregard for the safety of another, to discharge or attempt to discharge a firearm that has moved in or that otherwise affects interstate or foreign commerce at a place that the person knows is a school zone.

`(B) Subparagraph (A) does not apply to the discharge of a firearm--

`(i) on private property not part of school grounds;

`(ii) as part of a program approved by a school in the school zone, by an individual who is participating in the program;

`(iii) by an individual in accordance with a contract entered into between a school in a school zone and the individual or an employer of the individual; or

`(iv) by a law enforcement officer acting in his or her official capacity.

`(4) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed as preempting or preventing a State or local government from enacting a statute establishing gun free school zones as provided in this subsection.

`(r) It shall be unlawful for any person to assemble from imported parts any semiautomatic rifle or any shotgun which is identical to any rifle or shotgun prohibited from importation under section 585(d)(3) as not being particularly suitable for or readily adaptable to sporting purposes except that this subsection shall not apply to--

`(1) the assembly of any such rifle or shotgun for sale or distribution by a licensed manufacturer to the United States or any department or agency thereof or to any State or any department, agency, or political subdivision thereof; or

`(2) the assembly of any such rifle or shotgun for the purposes of testing or experimentation authorized by the Attorney General.

`(s)(1) Beginning on the date that is 90 days after the date of enactment of this subsection and ending on the day before the date that is 60 months after such date of enactment, it shall be unlawful for any licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer to sell, deliver, or transfer a handgun (other than the return of a handgun to the person from whom it was received) to an individual who is not licensed under section 583, unless--

`(A) after the most recent proposal of such transfer by the transferee--

`(i) the transferor has--

`(I) received from the transferee a statement of the transferee containing the information described in paragraph (3);

`(II) verified the identity of the transferee by examining the identification document presented;

`(III) within 1 day after the transferee furnishes the statement, provided notice of the contents of the statement to the chief law enforcement officer of the place of residence of the transferee; and

`(IV) within 1 day after the transferee furnishes the statement, transmitted a copy of the statement to the chief law enforcement officer of the place of residence of the transferee; and

`(ii)(I) 5 business days (meaning days on which State offices are open) have elapsed from the date the transferor furnished notice of the contents of the statement to the chief law enforcement officer, during which period the transferor has not received information from the chief law enforcement officer that receipt or possession of the handgun by the transferee would be in violation of Federal, State, or local law; or

`(II) the transferor has received notice from the chief law enforcement officer that the officer has no information indicating that receipt or possession of the handgun by the transferee would violate Federal, State, or local law;

`(B) the transferee has presented to the transferor a written statement, issued by the chief law enforcement officer of the place of residence of the transferee during the 10-day period ending on the date of the most recent proposal of such transfer by the transferee, stating that the transferee requires access to a handgun because of a threat to the life of the transferee or of any member of the household of the transferee;

`(C)(i) the transferee has presented to the transferor a permit that--

`(I) allows the transferee to possess or acquire a handgun; and

`(II) was issued not more than 5 years earlier by the State in which the transfer is to take place; and

`(ii) the law of the State provides that such a permit is to be issued only after an authorized government official has verified that the information available to such official does not indicate that possession of a handgun by the transferee would be in violation of the law;

`(D) the law of the State requires that, before any licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer completes the transfer of a handgun to an individual who is not licensed under section 583, an authorized government official verify that the information available to such official does not indicate that possession of a handgun by the transferee would be in violation of law;

`(E) the Attorney General has approved the transfer under section 5812 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; or

`(F) on application of the transferor, the Attorney General has certified that compliance with subparagraph (A)(i)(III) is impracticable because--

`(i) the ratio of the number of law enforcement officers of the State in which the transfer is to occur to the number of square miles of land area of the State does not exceed 0.0025;

`(ii) the business premises of the transferor at which the transfer is to occur are extremely remote in relation to the chief law enforcement officer; and

`(iii) there is an absence of telecommunications facilities in the geographical area in which the business premises are located.

`(2) A chief law enforcement officer to whom a transferor has provided notice pursuant to paragraph (1)(A)(i)(III) shall make a reasonable effort to ascertain within 5 business days whether receipt or possession would be in violation of the law, including research in whatever State and local recordkeeping systems are available and in a national system designated by the Attorney General.

`(3) The statement referred to in paragraph (1)(A)(i)(I) shall contain only--

`(A) the name, address, and date of birth appearing on a valid identification document (as defined in section 1028(d)(1) of the transferee containing a photograph of the transferee and a description of the identification used;

`(B) a statement that the transferee--

`(i) is not under indictment for, and has not been convicted in any court of, a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year, and has not been convicted in any court of a misdemeanor crime of domestic violence;

`(ii) is not a fugitive from justice;

`(iii) is not an unlawful user of or addicted to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act);

`(iv) has not been adjudicated as a mental defective or been committed to a mental institution;

`(v) is not an alien who--

`(I) is illegally or unlawfully in the United States; or

`(II) subject to subsection (y)(2), has been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa (as that term is defined in section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26)));

`(vi) has not been discharged from the Armed Forces under dishonorable conditions; and

`(vii) is not a person who, having been a citizen of the United States, has renounced such citizenship;

`(C) the date the statement is made; and

`(D) notice that the transferee intends to obtain a handgun from the transferor.

`(4) Any transferor of a handgun who, after such transfer, receives a report from a chief law enforcement officer containing information that receipt or possession of the handgun by the transferee violates Federal, State, or local law shall, within 1 business day after receipt of such request, communicate any information related to the transfer that the transferor has about the transfer and the transferee to--

`(A) the chief law enforcement officer of the place of business of the transferor; and

`(B) the chief law enforcement officer of the place of residence of the transferee.

`(5) Any transferor who receives information, not otherwise available to the public, in a report under this subsection shall not disclose such information except to the transferee, to law enforcement authorities, or pursuant to the direction of a court of law.

`(6)(A) Any transferor who sells, delivers, or otherwise transfers a handgun to a transferee shall retain the copy of the statement of the transferee with respect to the handgun transaction, and shall retain evidence that the transferor has complied with subclauses (III) and (IV) of paragraph (1)(A)(i) with respect to the statement.

`(B) Unless the chief law enforcement officer to whom a statement is transmitted under paragraph (1)(A)(i)(IV) determines that a transaction would violate Federal, State, or local law--

`(i) the officer shall, within 20 business days after the date the transferee made the statement on the basis of which the notice was provided, destroy the statement, any record containing information derived from the statement, and any record created as a result of the notice required by paragraph (1)(A)(i)(III);

`(ii) the information contained in the statement shall not be conveyed to any person except a person who has a need to know in order to carry out this subsection; and

`(iii) the information contained in the statement shall not be used for any purpose other than to carry out this subsection.

`(C) If a chief law enforcement officer determines that an individual is ineligible to receive a handgun and the individual requests the officer to provide the reason for such determination, the officer shall provide such reasons to the individual in writing within 20 business days after receipt of the request.

`(7) A chief law enforcement officer or other person responsible for providing criminal history background information pursuant to this subsection shall not be liable in an action at law for damages--

`(A) for failure to prevent the sale or transfer of a handgun to a person whose receipt or possession of the handgun is unlawful under this section; or

`(B) for preventing such a sale or transfer to a person who may lawfully receive or possess a handgun.

`(8) For purposes of this subsection, the term `chief law enforcement officer' means the chief of police, the sheriff, or an equivalent officer or the designee of any such individual.

`(9) The Attorney General shall take necessary actions to ensure that the provisions of this subsection are published and disseminated to licensed dealers, law enforcement officials, and the public.

`(t)(1) Beginning on the date that is 30 days after the Attorney General notifies licensees under section 103(d) of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act that the national instant criminal background check system is established, a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer shall not transfer a firearm to any other person who is not licensed under this chapter, unless--

`(A) before the completion of the transfer, the licensee contacts the national instant criminal background check system established under section 103 of that Act;

`(B)(i) the system provides the licensee with a unique identification number; or

`(ii) 3 business days (meaning a day on which State offices are open) have elapsed since the licensee contacted the system, and the system has not notified the licensee that the receipt of a firearm by such other person would violate subsection (g) or (n) of this section; and

`(C) the transferor has verified the identity of the transferee by examining a valid identification document (as defined in section 1028(d) of this title) of the transferee containing a photograph of the transferee.

`(2) If receipt of a firearm would not violate subsection (g) or (n) or State law, the system shall--

`(A) assign a unique identification number to the transfer;

`(B) provide the licensee with the number; and

`(C) destroy all records of the system with respect to the call (other than the identifying number and the date the number was assigned) and all records of the system relating to the person or the transfer.

`(3) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to a firearm transfer between a licensee and another person if--

`(A)(i) such other person has presented to the licensee a permit that--

`(I) allows such other person to possess or acquire a firearm; and

`(II) was issued not more than 5 years earlier by the State in which the transfer is to take place; and

`(ii) the law of the State provides that such a permit is to be issued only after an authorized government official has verified that the information available to such official does not indicate that possession of a firearm by such other person would be in violation of law;

`(B) the Attorney General has approved the transfer under section 5812 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986; or

`(C) on application of the transferor, the Attorney General has certified that compliance with paragraph (1)(A) is impracticable because--

`(i) the ratio of the number of law enforcement officers of the State in which the transfer is to occur to the number of square miles of land area of the State does not exceed 0.0025;

`(ii) the business premises of the licensee at which the transfer is to occur are extremely remote in relation to the chief law enforcement officer (as defined in subsection (s)(8)); and

`(iii) there is an absence of telecommunications facilities in the geographical area in which the business premises are located.

`(4) If the national instant criminal background check system notifies the licensee that the information available to the system does not demonstrate that the receipt of a firearm by such other person would violate subsection (g) or (n) or State law, and the licensee transfers a firearm to such other person, the licensee shall include in the record of the transfer the unique identification number provided by the system with respect to the transfer.

`(5) If the licensee knowingly transfers a firearm to such other person and knowingly fails to comply with paragraph (1) of this subsection with respect to the transfer and, at the time such other person most recently proposed the transfer, the national instant criminal background check system was operating and information was available to the system demonstrating that receipt of a firearm by such other person would violate subsection (g) or (n) of this section or State law, the Attorney General may, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, suspend for not more than 6 months or revoke any license issued to the licensee under section 583, and may impose on the licensee a civil fine of not more than $5,000.

`(6) Neither a local government nor an employee of the Federal Government or of any State or local government, responsible for providing information to the national instant criminal background check system shall be liable in an action at law for damages--

`(A) for failure to prevent the sale or transfer of a firearm to a person whose receipt or possession of the firearm is unlawful under this section; or

`(B) for preventing such a sale or transfer to a person who may lawfully receive or possess a firearm.

`(u) It shall be unlawful for a person to steal or unlawfully take or carry away from the person or the premises of a person who is licensed to engage in the business of importing, manufacturing, or dealing in firearms, any firearm in the licensee's business inventory that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce.

`(x)(1) It shall be unlawful for a person to sell, deliver, or otherwise transfer to a person who the transferor knows or has reasonable cause to believe is a juvenile--

`(A) a handgun; or

`(B) ammunition that is suitable for use only in a handgun.

`(2) It shall be unlawful for any person who is a juvenile to knowingly possess--

`(A) a handgun; or

`(B) ammunition that is suitable for use only in a handgun.

`(3) This subsection does not apply to--

`(A) a temporary transfer of a handgun or ammunition to a juvenile or to the possession or use of a handgun or ammunition by a juvenile if the handgun and ammunition are possessed and used by the juvenile--

`(i) in the course of employment, in the course of ranching or farming related to activities at the residence of the juvenile (or on property used for ranching or farming at which the juvenile, with the permission of the property owner or lessee, is performing activities related to the operation of the farm or ranch), target practice, hunting, or a course of instruction in the safe and lawful use of a handgun;

`(ii) with the prior written consent of the juvenile's parent or guardian who is not prohibited by Federal, State, or local law from possessing a firearm, except--

`(I) during transportation by the juvenile of an unloaded handgun in a locked container directly from the place of transfer to a place at which an activity described in clause (i) is to take place and transportation by the juvenile of that handgun, unloaded and in a locked container, directly from the place at which such an activity took place to the transferor; or

`(II) with respect to ranching or farming activities as described in clause (i), a juvenile may possess and use a handgun or ammunition with the prior written approval of the juvenile's parent or legal guardian and at the direction of an adult who is not prohibited by Federal, State or local law from possessing a firearm; or

`(iii) the juvenile has the prior written consent in the juvenile's possession at all times when a handgun is in the possession of the juvenile; and

`(iv) in accordance with State and local law;

`(B) a juvenile who is a member of the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard who possesses or is armed with a handgun in the line of duty;

`(C) a transfer by inheritance of title (but not possession) of a handgun or ammunition to a juvenile; or

`(D) the possession of a handgun or ammunition by a juvenile taken in defense of the juvenile or other persons against an intruder into the residence of the juvenile or a residence in which the juvenile is an invited guest.

`(4) A handgun or ammunition, the possession of which is transferred to a juvenile in circumstances in which the transferor is not in violation of this subsection shall not be subject to permanent confiscation by the Government if its possession by the juvenile subsequently becomes unlawful because of the conduct of the juvenile, but shall be returned to the lawful owner when such handgun or ammunition is no longer required by the Government for the purposes of investigation or prosecution.

`(5) For purposes of this subsection, the term `juvenile' means a person who is less than 18 years of age.

`(6)(A) In a prosecution of a violation of this subsection, the court shall require the presence of a juvenile defendant's parent or legal guardian at all proceedings.

`(B) The court may use the contempt power to enforce subparagraph (A).

`(C) The court may excuse attendance of a parent or legal guardian of a juvenile defendant at a proceeding in a prosecution of a violation of this subsection for good cause shown.

`(y) Provisions Relating to Aliens Admitted Under Nonimmigrant Visas-

`(1) Definitions- In this subsection--

`(A) the term `alien' has the same meaning as in section 101(a)(3) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(3)); and

`(B) the term `nonimmigrant visa' has the same meaning as in section 101(a)(26) of the Immigration and Nationality Act (8 U.S.C. 1101(a)(26)).

`(2) Exceptions- Subsections (d)(5)(B), (g)(5)(B), and (s)(3)(B)(v)(II) do not apply to any alien who has been lawfully admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa, if that alien is--

`(A) admitted to the United States for lawful hunting or sporting purposes or is in possession of a hunting license or permit lawfully issued in the United States;

`(B) an official representative of a foreign government who is--

`(i) accredited to the United States Government or the Government's mission to an international organization having its headquarters in the United States; or

`(ii) en route to or from another country to which that alien is accredited;

`(C) an official of a foreign government or a distinguished foreign visitor who has been so designated by the Department of State; or

`(D) a foreign law enforcement officer of a friendly foreign government entering the United States on official law enforcement business.

`(3) Waiver-

`(A) Conditions for waiver- Any individual who has been admitted to the United States under a nonimmigrant visa may receive a waiver from the requirements of subsection (g)(5), if--

`(i) the individual submits to the Attorney General a petition that meets the requirements of subparagraph (C); and

`(ii) the Attorney General approves the petition.

`(B) Petition- Each petition under subparagraph (B) shall--

`(i) demonstrate that the petitioner has resided in the United States for a continuous period of not less than 180 days before the date on which the petition is submitted under this paragraph; and

`(ii) include a written statement from the embassy or consulate of the petitioner, authorizing the petitioner to acquire a firearm or ammunition and certifying that the alien would not, absent the application of subsection (g)(5)(B), otherwise be prohibited from such acquisition under subsection (g).

`(C) Approval of petition- The Attorney General shall approve a petition submitted in accordance with this paragraph, if the Attorney General determines that waiving the requirements of subsection (g)(5)(B) with respect to the petitioner--

`(i) would be in the interests of justice; and

`(ii) would not jeopardize the public safety.

`(z) Secure Gun Storage or Safety Device-

`(1) IN GENERAL- Except as provided under paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful for any licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer to sell, deliver, or transfer any handgun to any person other than any person licensed under this chapter, unless the transferee is provided with a secure gun storage or safety device (as defined in section 921(a)(34)) for that handgun.

`(2) EXCEPTIONS- Paragraph (1) shall not apply to--

`(A)(i) the manufacture for, transfer to, or possession by, the United States, a department or agency of the United States, a State, or a department, agency, or political subdivision of a State, of a handgun; or

`(ii) the transfer to, or possession by, a law enforcement officer employed by an entity referred to in clause (i) of a handgun for law enforcement purposes (whether on or off duty); or

`(B) the transfer to, or possession by, a rail police officer employed by a rail carrier and certified or commissioned as a police officer under the laws of a State of a handgun for purposes of law enforcement (whether on or off duty);

`(C) the transfer to any person of a handgun listed as a curio or relic by the Secretary pursuant to section 921(a)(13); or

`(D) the transfer to any person of a handgun for which a secure gun storage or safety device is temporarily unavailable for the reasons described in the exceptions stated in section 923(e), if the licensed manufacturer, licensed importer, or licensed dealer delivers to the transferee within 10 calendar days from the date of the delivery of the handgun to the transferee a secure gun storage or safety device for the handgun.

`(3) LIABILITY FOR USE-

`(A) IN GENERAL- Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a person who has lawful possession and control of a handgun, and who uses a secure gun storage or safety device with the handgun, shall be entitled to immunity from a qualified civil liability action.

`(B) PROSPECTIVE ACTIONS- A qualified civil liability action may not be brought in any Federal or State court.

`(C) DEFINED TERM- As used in this paragraph, the term `qualified civil liability action'--

`(i) means a civil action brought by any person against a person described in subparagraph (A) for damages resulting from the criminal or unlawful misuse of the handgun by a third party, if--

`(I) the handgun was accessed by another person who did not have the permission or authorization of the person having lawful possession and control of the handgun to have access to it; and

`(II) at the time access was gained by the person not so authorized, the handgun had been made inoperable by use of a secure gun storage or safety device; and

`(ii) shall not include an action brought against the person having lawful possession and control of the handgun for negligent entrustment or negligence per se.

`Sec. 583. Licensing

`(a) No person shall engage in the business of importing, manufacturing, or dealing in firearms, or importing or manufacturing ammunition, until he has filed an application with and received a license to do so from the Attorney General. The application shall be in such form and contain only that information necessary to determine eligibility for licensing as the Attorney General shall by regulation prescribe and shall include a photograph and fingerprints of the applicant. Each applicant shall pay a fee for obtaining such a license, a separate fee being required for each place in which the applicant is to do business, as follows:

`(1) If the applicant is a manufacturer--

`(A) of destructive devices, ammunition for destructive devices or armor piercing ammunition, a fee of $1,000 per year;

`(B) of firearms other than destructive devices, a fee of $50 per year; or

`(C) of ammunition for firearms, other than ammunition for destructive devices or armor piercing ammunition, a fee of $10 per year.

`(2) If the applicant is an importer--

`(A) of destructive devices, ammunition for destructive devices or armor piercing ammunition, a fee of $1,000 per year; or

`(B) of firearms other than destructive devices or ammunition for firearms other than destructive devices, or ammunition other than armor piercing ammunition, a fee of $50 per year.

`(3) If the applicant is a dealer--

`(A) in destructive devices or ammunition for destructive devices, a fee of $1,000 per year; or

`(B) who is not a dealer in destructive devices, a fee of $200 for 3 years, except that the fee for renewal of a valid license shall be $90 for 3 years.

`(b) Any person desiring to be licensed as a collector shall file an application for such license with the Attorney General. The application shall be in such form and contain only that information necessary to determine eligibility as the Attorney General shall by regulation prescribe. The fee for such license shall be $10 per year. Any license granted under this subsection shall only apply to transactions in curios and relics.

`(c) Upon the filing of a proper application and payment of the prescribed fee, the Attorney General shall issue to a qualified applicant the appropriate license which, subject to the provisions of this chapter and other applicable provisions of law, shall entitle the licensee to transport, ship, and receive firearms and ammunition covered by such license in interstate or foreign commerce during the period stated in the license. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit a licensed manufacturer, importer, or dealer from maintaining and disposing of a personal collection of firearms, subject only to such restrictions as apply in this chapter to dispositions by a person other than a licensed manufacturer, importer, or dealer. If any firearm is so disposed of by a licensee within one year after its transfer from his business inventory into such licensee's personal collection or if such disposition or any other acquisition is made for the purpose of willfully evading the restrictions placed upon licensees by this chapter, then such firearm shall be deemed part of such licensee's business inventory, except that any licensed manufacturer, importer, or dealer who has maintained a firearm as part of a personal collection for one year and who sells or otherwise disposes of such firearm shall record the description of the firearm in a bound volume, containing the name and place of residence and date of birth of the transferee if the transferee is an individual, or the identity and principal and local places of business of the transferee if the transferee is a corporation or other business entity: Provided, That no other recordkeeping shall be required.

`(d)(1) Any application submitted under subsection (a) or (b) of this section shall be approved if--

`(A) the applicant is twenty-one years of age or over;

`(B) the applicant (including, in the case of a corporation, partnership, or association, any individual possessing, directly or indirectly, the power to direct or cause the direction of the management and policies of the corporation, partnership, or association) is not prohibited from transporting, shipping, or receiving firearms or ammunition in interstate or foreign commerce under section 582(g) and (n);

`(C) the applicant has not willfully violated any of the provisions of this chapter or regulations issued thereunder;

`(D) the applicant has not willfully failed to disclose any material information required, or has not made any false statement as to any material fact, in connection with his application;

`(E) the applicant has in a State (i) premises from which he conducts business subject to license under this chapter or from which he intends to conduct such business within a reasonable period of time, or (ii) in the case of a collector, premises from which he conducts his collecting subject to license under this chapter or from which he intends to conduct such collecting within a reasonable period of time;

`(F) the applicant certifies that--

`(i) the business to be conducted under the license is not prohibited by State or local law in the place where the licensed premise is located;

`(ii)(I) within 30 days after the application is approved the business will comply with the requirements of State and local law applicable to the conduct of the business; and

`(II) the business will not be conducted under the license until the requirements of State and local law applicable to the business have been met; and

`(iii) that the applicant has sent or delivered a form to be prescribed by the Attorney General, to the chief law enforcement officer of the locality in which the premises are located, which indicates that the applicant intends to apply for a Federal firearms license; and

`(G) in the case of an application to be licensed as a dealer, the applicant certifies that secure gun storage or safety devices will be available at any place in which firearms are sold under the license to persons who are not licensees (subject to the exception that in any case in which a secure gun storage or safety device is temporarily unavailable because of theft, casualty loss, consumer sales, backorders from a manufacturer, or any other similar reason beyond the control of the licensee, the dealer shall not be considered to be in violation of the requirement under this subparagraph to make available such a device).

`(2) The Attorney General must approve or deny an application for a license within the 60-day period beginning on the date it is received. If the Attorney General fails to act within such period, the applicant may file an action under section 1361 of title 28 to compel the Attorney General to act. If the Attorney General approves an applicant's application, such applicant shall be issued a license upon the payment of the prescribed fee.

`(e) The Attorney General may, after notice and opportunity for hearing, revoke any license issued under this section if the holder of such license has willfully violated any provision of this chapter or any rule or regulation prescribed by the Attorney General under this chapter or fails to have secure gun storage or safety devices available at any place in which firearms are sold under the license to persons who are not licensees (except that in any case in which a secure gun storage or safety device is temporarily unavailable because of theft, casualty loss, consumer sales, backorders from a manufacturer, or any other similar reason beyond the control of the licensee, the dealer shall not be considered to be in violation of the requirement to make available such a device). The Attorney General may, after notice and opportunity for hearing, revoke the license of a dealer who willfully transfers armor piercing ammunition. The Attorney General's action under this subsection may be reviewed only as provided in subsection (f) of this section.

`(f)(1) Any person whose application for a license is denied and any holder of a license which is revoked shall receive a written notice from the Attorney General stating specifically the grounds upon which the application was denied or upon which the license was revoked. Any notice of a revocation of a license shall be given to the holder of such license before the effective date of the revocation.

`(2) If the Attorney General denies an application for, or revokes, a license, he shall, upon request by the aggrieved party, promptly hold a hearing to review his denial or revocation. In the case of a revocation of a license, the Attorney General shall upon the request of the holder of the license stay the effective date of the revocation. A hearing held under this paragraph shall be held at a location convenient to the aggrieved party.

`(3) If after a hearing held under paragraph (2) the Attorney General decides not to reverse his decision to deny an application or revoke a license, the Attorney General shall give notice of his decision to the aggrieved party. The aggrieved party may at any time within sixty days after the date notice was given under this paragraph file a petition with the United States district court for the district in which he resides or has his principal place of business for a de novo judicial review of such denial or revocation. In a proceeding conducted under this subsection, the court may consider any evidence submitted by the parties to the proceeding whether or not such evidence was considered at the hearing held under paragraph (2). If the court decides that the Attorney General was not authorized to deny the application or to revoke the license, the court shall order the Attorney General to take such action as may be necessary to comply with the judgment of the court.

`(4) If criminal proceedings are instituted against a licensee alleging any violation of this chapter or of rules or regulations prescribed under this chapter, and the licensee is acquitted of such charges, or such proceedings are terminated, other than upon motion of the Government before trial upon such charges, the Attorney General shall be absolutely barred from denying or revoking any license granted under this chapter where such denial or revocation is based in whole or in part on the facts which form the basis of such criminal charges. No proceedings for the revocation of a license shall be instituted by the Attorney General more than one year after the filing of the indictment or information.

`(g)(1)(A) Each licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, and licensed dealer shall maintain such records of importation, production, shipment, receipt, sale, or other disposition of firearms at his place of business for such period, and in such form, as the Attorney General may by regulations prescribe. Such importers, manufacturers, and dealers shall not be required to submit to the Attorney General reports and information with respect to such records and the contents thereof, except as expressly required by this section. The Attorney General, when he has reasonable cause to believe a violation of this chapter has occurred and that evidence thereof may be found on such premises, may, upon demonstrating such cause before a Federal magistrate judge and securing from such magistrate judge a warrant authorizing entry, enter during business hours the premises (including places of storage) of any licensed firearms importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, licensed collector, or any licensed importer or manufacturer of ammunition, for the purpose of inspecting or examining--

`(i) any records or documents required to be kept by such licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector under this chapter or rules or regulations under this chapter, and

`(ii) any firearms or ammunition kept or stored by such licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector, at such premises.

`(B) The Attorney General may inspect or examine the inventory and records of a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer without such reasonable cause or warrant--

`(i) in the course of a reasonable inquiry during the course of a criminal investigation of a person or persons other than the licensee;

`(ii) for ensuring compliance with the record keeping requirements of this chapter--

`(I) not more than once during any 12-month period; or

`(II) at any time with respect to records relating to a firearm involved in a criminal investigation that is traced to the licensee; or

`(iii) when such inspection or examination may be required for determining the disposition of one or more particular firearms in the course of a bona fide criminal investigation.

`(C) The Attorney General may inspect the inventory and records of a licensed collector without such reasonable cause or warrant--

`(i) for ensuring compliance with the record keeping requirements of this chapter not more than once during any twelve-month period; or

`(ii) when such inspection or examination may be required for determining the disposition of one or more particular firearms in the course of a bona fide criminal investigation.

`(D) At the election of a licensed collector, the annual inspection of records and inventory permitted under this paragraph shall be performed at the office of the Attorney General designated for such inspections which is located in closest proximity to the premises where the inventory and records of such licensed collector are maintained. The inspection and examination authorized by this paragraph shall not be construed as authorizing the Attorney General to seize any records or other documents other than those records or documents constituting material evidence of a violation of law. If the Attorney General seizes such records or documents, copies shall be provided the licensee within a reasonable time. The Attorney General may make available to any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency any information which he may obtain by reason of this chapter with respect to the identification of persons prohibited from purchasing or receiving firearms or ammunition who have purchased or received firearms or ammunition, together with a description of such firearms or ammunition, and he may provide information to the extent such information may be contained in the records required to be maintained by this chapter, when so requested by any Federal, State, or local law enforcement agency.

`(2) Each licensed collector shall maintain in a bound volume the nature of which the Attorney General may by regulations prescribe, records of the receipt, sale, or other disposition of firearms. Such records shall include the name and address of any person to whom the collector sells or otherwise disposes of a firearm. Such collector shall not be required to submit to the Attorney General reports and information with respect to such records and the contents thereof, except as expressly required by this section.

`(3)(A) Each licensee shall prepare a report of multiple sales or other dispositions whenever the licensee sells or otherwise disposes of, at one time or during any five consecutive business days, two or more pistols, or revolvers, or any combination of pistols and revolvers totalling two or more, to an unlicensed person. The report shall be prepared on a form specified by the Attorney General and forwarded to the office specified thereon and to the department of State police or State law enforcement agency of the State or local law enforcement agency of the local jurisdiction in which the sale or other disposition took place, not later than the close of business on the day that the multiple sale or other disposition occurs.

`(B) Except in the case of forms and contents thereof regarding a purchaser who is prohibited by subsection (g) or (n) of section 582 of this title from receipt of a firearm, the department of State police or State law enforcement agency or local law enforcement agency of the local jurisdiction shall not disclose any such form or the contents thereof to any person or entity, and shall destroy each such form and any record of the contents thereof no more than 20 days from the date such form is received. No later than the date that is 6 months after the effective date of this subparagraph, and at the end of each 6-month period thereafter, the department of State police or State law enforcement agency or local law enforcement agency of the local jurisdiction shall certify to the Attorney General of the United States that no disclosure contrary to this subparagraph has been made and that all forms and any record of the contents thereof have been destroyed as provided in this subparagraph.

`(4) Where a firearms or ammunition business is discontinued and succeeded by a new licensee, the records required to be kept by this chapter shall appropriately reflect such facts and shall be delivered to the successor. Where discontinuance of the business is absolute, such records shall be delivered within thirty days after the business discontinuance to the Attorney General. However, where State law or local ordinance requires the delivery of records to other responsible authority, the Attorney General may arrange for the delivery of such records to such other responsible authority.

`(5)(A) Each licensee shall, when required by letter issued by the Attorney General, and until notified to the contrary in writing by the Attorney General, submit on a form specified by the Attorney General, for periods and at the times specified in such letter, all record information required to be kept by this chapter or such lesser record information as the Attorney General in such letter may specify.

`(B) The Attorney General may authorize such record information to be submitted in a manner other than that prescribed in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph when it is shown by a licensee that an alternate method of reporting is reasonably necessary and will not unduly hinder the effective administration of this chapter. A licensee may use an alternate method of reporting if the licensee describes the proposed alternate method of reporting and the need therefor in a letter application submitted to the Attorney General, and the Attorney General approves such alternate method of reporting.

`(6) Each licensee shall report the theft or loss of a firearm from the licensee's inventory or collection, within 48 hours after the theft or loss is discovered, to the Attorney General and to the appropriate local authorities.

`(7) Each licensee shall respond immediately to, and in no event later than 24 hours after the receipt of, a request by the Attorney General for information contained in the records required to be kept by this chapter as may be required for determining the disposition of 1 or more firearms in the course of a bona fide criminal investigation. The requested information shall be provided orally or in writing, as the Attorney General may require. The Attorney General shall implement a system whereby the licensee can positively identify and establish that an individual requesting information via telephone is employed by and authorized by the agency to request such information.

`(h) Licenses issued under the provisions of subsection (c) of this section shall be kept posted and kept available for inspection on the premises covered by the license.

`(i) Licensed importers and licensed manufacturers shall identify by means of a serial number engraved or cast on the receiver or frame of the weapon, in such manner as the Attorney General shall by regulations prescribe, each firearm imported or manufactured by such importer or manufacturer.

`(j) A licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer may, under rules or regulations prescribed by the Attorney General, conduct business temporarily at a location other than the location specified on the license if such temporary location is the location for a gun show or event sponsored by any national, State, or local organization, or any affiliate of any such organization devoted to the collection, competitive use, or other sporting use of firearms in the community, and such location is in the State which is specified on the license. Records of receipt and disposition of firearms transactions conducted at such temporary location shall include the location of the sale or other disposition and shall be entered in the permanent records of the licensee and retained on the location specified on the license. Nothing in this subsection shall authorize any licensee to conduct business in or from any motorized or towed vehicle. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, a separate fee shall not be required of a licensee with respect to business conducted under this subsection. Any inspection or examination of inventory or records under this chapter by the Attorney General at such temporary location shall be limited to inventory consisting of, or records relating to, firearms held or disposed at such temporary location. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to authorize the Attorney General to inspect or examine the inventory or records of a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer at any location other than the location specified on the license. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to diminish in any manner any right to display, sell, or otherwise dispose of firearms or ammunition, which is in effect before the date of the enactment of the Firearms Owners' Protection Act, including the right of a licensee to conduct `curios or relics' firearms transfers and business away from their business premises with another licensee without regard as to whether the location of where the business is conducted is located in the State specified on the license of either licensee.

`(k) Licensed importers and licensed manufacturers shall mark all armor piercing projectiles and packages containing such projectiles for distribution in the manner prescribed by the Attorney General by regulation. The Attorney General shall furnish information to each dealer licensed under this chapter defining which projectiles are considered armor piercing ammunition.

`(l) The Attorney General shall notify the chief law enforcement officer in the appropriate State and local jurisdictions of the names and addresses of all persons in the State to whom a firearms license is issued.

`Sec. 584. Penalties

`(a)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, subsection (b), (c), (f), or (p) of this section, or in section 592, whoever--

`(A) knowingly makes any false statement or representation with respect to the information required by this chapter to be kept in the records of a person licensed under this chapter or in applying for any license or exemption or relief from disability under the provisions of this chapter;

`(B) knowingly violates subsection (a)(4), (f), (k), or (q) of section 582;

`(C) knowingly imports or brings into the United States or any possession thereof any firearm or ammunition in violation of section 582(l); or

`(D) knowingly violates any other provision of this chapter,

shall be imprisoned not more than five years.

`(2) Whoever knowingly violates subsection (a)(6), (d), (g), (h), (i), (j), or (o) of section 582 shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(3) Any licensed dealer, licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed collector who knowingly--

`(A) makes any false statement or representation with respect to the information required by the provisions of this chapter to be kept in the records of a person licensed under this chapter, or

`(B) violates subsection (m) of section 582,

shall be imprisoned not more than one year.

`(4) Whoever violates section 582(q) shall be imprisoned for not more than 5 years. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the term of imprisonment imposed under this paragraph shall not run concurrently with any other term of imprisonment imposed under any other provision of law. Except for the authorization of a term of imprisonment of not more than 5 years made in this paragraph, for the purpose of any other law a violation of section 582(q) shall be deemed to be a misdemeanor.

`(5) Whoever knowingly violates subsection (s) or (t) of section 582 shall be imprisoned for not more than 1 year.

`(6)(A)(i) A juvenile who violates section 582(x) shall be imprisoned not more than 1 year, except that a juvenile described in clause (ii) shall be sentenced to probation on appropriate conditions and shall not be incarcerated unless the juvenile fails to comply with a condition of probation.

`(ii) A juvenile is described in this clause if--

`(I) the offense of which the juvenile is charged is possession of a handgun or ammunition in violation of section 582(x)(2); and

`(II) the juvenile has not been convicted in any court of an offense (including an offense under section 582(x) or a similar State law, but not including any other offense consisting of conduct that if engaged in by an adult would not constitute an offense) or adjudicated as a juvenile delinquent for conduct that if engaged in by an adult would constitute an offense.

`(B) A person other than a juvenile who knowingly violates section 582(x)--

`(i) shall be imprisoned not more than 1 year; and

`(ii) if the person sold, delivered, or otherwise transferred a handgun or ammunition to a juvenile knowing or having reasonable cause to know that the juvenile intended to carry or otherwise possess or discharge or otherwise use the handgun or ammunition in the commission of a crime of violence, shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(7) Whoever knowingly violates section 594 shall be imprisoned not more than 3 years.

`(b) Whoever, with intent to commit therewith an offense punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, or with knowledge or reasonable cause to believe that an offense punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year is to be committed therewith, ships, transports, or receives a firearm or any ammunition in interstate or foreign commerce shall be imprisoned not more than ten years.

`(c)(1)(A) Except to the extent that a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided by this subsection or by any other provision of law, any person who, during and in relation to any crime of violence or drug trafficking crime (including a crime of violence or drug trafficking crime that provides for an enhanced punishment if committed by the use of a deadly or dangerous weapon or device) for which the person may be prosecuted in a court of the United States, uses or carries a firearm, or who, in furtherance of any such crime, possesses a firearm, shall, in addition to the punishment provided for such crime of violence or drug trafficking crime--

`(i) be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 5 years;

`(ii) if the firearm is brandished, be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 7 years; and

`(iii) if the firearm is discharged, be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years.

`(B) If the firearm possessed by a person convicted of a violation of this subsection--

`(i) is a short-barreled rifle, short-barreled shotgun, or semiautomatic assault weapon, the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 10 years; or

`(ii) is a machinegun or a destructive device, or is equipped with a firearm silencer or firearm muffler, the person shall be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 30 years.

`(C) In the case of a second or subsequent conviction under this subsection, the person shall--

`(i) be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 25 years; and

`(ii) if the firearm involved is a machinegun or a destructive device, or is equipped with a firearm silencer or firearm muffler, be sentenced to imprisonment for life.

`(D) Notwithstanding any other provision of law--

`(i) a court shall not place on probation any person convicted of a violation of this subsection; and

`(ii) no term of imprisonment imposed on a person under this subsection shall run concurrently with any other term of imprisonment imposed on the person, including any term of imprisonment imposed for the crime of violence or drug trafficking crime during which the firearm was used, carried, or possessed.

`(2) For purposes of this subsection, the term `drug trafficking crime' means any felony punishable under the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 801 et seq.), the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (21 U.S.C. 951 et seq.), or the Maritime Drug Law Enforcement Act (46 U.S.C. App. 1901 et seq.).

`(3) For purposes of this subsection the term `crime of violence' means an offense that is a felony and--

`(A) has as an element the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the person or property of another, or

`(B) that by its nature, involves a substantial risk that physical force against the person or property of another may be used in the course of committing the offense.

`(4) For purposes of this subsection, the term `brandish' means, with respect to a firearm, to display all or part of the firearm, or otherwise make the presence of the firearm known to another person, in order to intimidate that person, regardless of whether the firearm is directly visible to that person.

`(5) Except to the extent that a greater minimum sentence is otherwise provided under this subsection, or by any other provision of law, any person who, during and in relation to any crime of violence or drug trafficking crime (including a crime of violence or drug trafficking crime that provides for an enhanced punishment if committed by the use of a deadly or dangerous weapon or device) for which the person may be prosecuted in a court of the United States, uses or carries armor piercing ammunition, or who, in furtherance of any such crime, possesses armor piercing ammunition, shall, in addition to the punishment provided for such crime of violence or drug trafficking crime or conviction under this section--

`(A) be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not less than 15 years; and

`(B) if death results from the use of such ammunition be punished as provided in section 101.

`(d)(1) Any firearm or ammunition involved in or used in any knowing violation of subsection (a)(4), (a)(6), (f), (g), (h), (i), (j), or (k) of section 582, or knowing importation or bringing into the United States or any possession thereof any firearm or ammunition in violation of section 582(l), or knowing violation of section 584, or willful violation of any other provision of this chapter or any rule or regulation promulgated thereunder, or any violation of any other criminal law of the United States, or any firearm or ammunition intended to be used in any offense referred to in paragraph (3) of this subsection, where such intent is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence, shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture, and all provisions of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 relating to the seizure, forfeiture, and disposition of firearms, as defined in section 5845(a) of that Code, shall, so far as applicable, extend to seizures and forfeitures under the provisions of this chapter: Provided, That upon acquittal of the owner or possessor, or dismissal of the charges against him other than upon motion of the Government prior to trial, or lapse of or court termination of the restraining order to which he is subject, the seized or relinquished firearms or ammunition shall be returned forthwith to the owner or possessor or to a person delegated by the owner or possessor unless the return of the firearms or ammunition would place the owner or possessor or his delegate in violation of law. Any action or proceeding for the forfeiture of firearms or ammunition shall be commenced within one hundred and twenty days of such seizure.

`(2)(A) In any action or proceeding for the return of firearms or ammunition seized under the provisions of this chapter, the court shall allow the prevailing party, other than the United States, a reasonable attorney's fee, and the United States shall be liable therefor.

`(B) In any other action or proceeding under the provisions of this chapter, the court, when it finds that such action was without foundation, or was initiated vexatiously, frivolously, or in bad faith, shall allow the prevailing party, other than the United States, a reasonable attorney's fee, and the United States shall be liable therefor.

`(C) Only those firearms or quantities of ammunition particularly named and individually identified as involved in or used in any violation of the provisions of this chapter or any rule or regulation issued thereunder, or any other criminal law of the United States or as intended to be used in any offense referred to in paragraph (3) of this subsection, where such intent is demonstrated by clear and convincing evidence, shall be subject to seizure, forfeiture, and disposition.

`(D) The United States shall be liable for attorneys' fees under this paragraph only to the extent provided in advance by appropriation Acts.

`(3) The offenses referred to in paragraphs (1) and (2)(C) of this subsection are--

`(A) any crime of violence, as that term is defined in section 584(c)(3) of this title;

`(B) any offense punishable under the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 801 et seq.) or the Controlled Substances Import and Export Act (21 U.S.C. 951 et seq.);

`(C) any offense described in section 582(a)(1), 582(a)(3), 582(a)(5), or 582(b)(3) of this title, where the firearm or ammunition intended to be used in any such offense is involved in a pattern of activities which includes a violation of any offense described in section 582(a)(1), 582(a)(3), 582(a)(5), or 582(b)(3) of this title;

`(D) any offense described in section 582(d) of this title where the firearm or ammunition is intended to be used in such offense by the transferor of such firearm or ammunition;

`(E) any offense described in section 582(i), 582(j), 582(l), 582(n), or 584(b) of this title; and

`(F) any offense which may be prosecuted in a court of the United States which involves the exportation of firearms or ammunition.

`(e)(1) In the case of a person who violates section 582(g) of this title and has three previous convictions by any court referred to in section 582(g)(1) of this title for a violent felony or a serious drug offense, or both, committed on occasions different from one another, such person shall be imprisoned not less than fifteen years, and, notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not suspend the sentence of, or grant a probationary sentence to, such person with respect to the conviction under section 582(g).

`(2) As used in this subsection--

`(A) the term `serious drug offense' means--

`(i) an offense under chapter 17 or the Maritime Drug Law Enforcement Act (46 U.S.C. App. 1901 et seq.) for which a maximum term of imprisonment of ten years or more is prescribed by law; or

`(ii) an offense under State law, involving manufacturing, distributing, or possessing with intent to manufacture or distribute, a controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802)), for which a maximum term of imprisonment of ten years or more is prescribed by law;

`(B) the term `violent felony' means any crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, or any act of juvenile delinquency involving the use or carrying of a firearm, knife, or destructive device that would be punishable by imprisonment for such term if committed by an adult, that--

`(i) has as an element the use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical force against the person of another; or

`(ii) is burglary, arson, or extortion, involves use of explosives, or otherwise involves conduct that presents a serious potential risk of physical injury to another; and

`(C) the term `conviction' includes a finding that a person has committed an act of juvenile delinquency involving a violent felony.

`(f) In the case of a person who knowingly violates section 582(p), such person shall be or imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`(g) Whoever, with the intent to engage in conduct which--

`(1) constitutes an offense listed in section 1961(1),

`(2) is punishable under chapter 17 or the Maritime Drug Law Enforcement Act (46 U.S.C. App. 1901 et seq.),

`(3) violates any State law relating to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102(6) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(6))), or

`(4) constitutes a crime of violence (as defined in subsection (c)(3)),

travels from any State or foreign country into any other State and acquires, transfers, or attempts to acquire or transfer, a firearm in such other State in furtherance of such purpose, shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(h) Whoever knowingly transfers a firearm, knowing that such firearm will be used to commit a crime of violence (as defined in subsection (c)(3)) or drug trafficking crime (as defined in subsection (c)(2)) shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(i)(1) A person who knowingly violates section 582(u) shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(2) Nothing contained in this subsection shall be construed as indicating an intent on the part of Congress to occupy the field in which provisions of this subsection operate to the exclusion of State laws on the same subject matter, nor shall any provision of this subsection be construed as invalidating any provision of State law unless such provision is inconsistent with any of the purposes of this subsection.

`(j) A person who, in the course of a violation of subsection (c), causes the death of a person through the use of a firearm, shall--

`(1) if the killing is a murder (as defined in section 1111), be punished by death or by imprisonment for any term of years or for life; and

`(2) if the killing is manslaughter (as defined in section 1112), be punished as provided in that section.

`(k) A person who, with intent to engage in or to promote conduct that--

`(1) is punishable under chapter 17 or the Maritime Drug Law Enforcement Act (46 U.S.C. App. 1901 et seq.);

`(2) violates any law of a State relating to any controlled substance (as defined in section 102 of the Controlled Substances Act, 21 U.S.C. 802); or

`(3) constitutes a crime of violence (as defined in subsection (c)(3)),

smuggles or knowingly brings into the United States a firearm, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(l) A person who steals any firearm which is moving as, or is a part of, or which has moved in, interstate or foreign commerce shall be imprisoned for not more than 10 years.

`(m) A person who steals any firearm from a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector shall be imprisoned not more than 10 years.

`(n) A person who, with the intent to engage in conduct that constitutes a violation of section 582(a)(1)(A), travels from any State or foreign country into any other State and acquires, or attempts to acquire, a firearm in such other State in furtherance of such purpose shall be imprisoned for not more than 10 years.

`(o) A person who conspires to commit an offense under subsection (c) shall be imprisoned for not more than 20 years; and if the firearm is a machinegun or destructive device, or is equipped with a firearm silencer or muffler, shall be imprisoned for any term of years or life.

`(p) Penalties Relating to Secure Gun Storage or Safety Device-

`(1) IN GENERAL-

`(A) SUSPENSION OR REVOCATION OF LICENSE; CIVIL PENALTIES- With respect to each violation of section 922(z)(1) by a licensed manufacturer, licensed importer, or licensed dealer, the Secretary may, after notice and opportunity for hearing--

`(i) suspend for not more than 6 months, or revoke, the license issued to the licensee under this chapter that was used to conduct the firearms transfer; or

`(ii) subject the licensee to a civil penalty in an amount equal to not more than $2,500.

`(B) REVIEW- An action of the Secretary under this paragraph may be reviewed only as provided under section 923(f).

`(2) ADMINISTRATIVE REMEDIES- The suspension or revocation of a license or the imposition of a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not preclude any administrative remedy that is otherwise available to the Secretary.

`Sec. 585. Exceptions: Relief from disabilities

`(a)(1) The provisions of this chapter, except for sections 582(d)(9) and 582(g)(9) and provisions relating to firearms subject to the prohibitions of section 582(p), shall not apply with respect to the transportation, shipment, receipt, possession, or importation of any firearm or ammunition imported for, sold or shipped to, or issued for the use of, the United States or any department or agency thereof or any State or any department, agency, or political subdivision thereof.

`(2) The provisions of this chapter, except for provisions relating to firearms subject to the prohibitions of section 582(p), shall not apply with respect to (A) the shipment or receipt of firearms or ammunition when sold or issued by the Secretary of the Army pursuant to section 4308 of title 10 before the repeal of such section by section 1624(a) of the Corporation for the Promotion of Rifle Practice and Firearms Safety Act, and (B) the transportation of any such firearm or ammunition carried out to enable a person, who lawfully received such firearm or ammunition from the Secretary of the Army, to engage in military training or in competitions.

`(3) Unless otherwise prohibited by this chapter, except for provisions relating to firearms subject to the prohibitions of section 582(p), or any other Federal law, a licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, or licensed dealer may ship to a member of the United States Armed Forces on active duty outside the United States or to clubs, recognized by the Department of Defense, whose entire membership is composed of such members, and such members or clubs may receive a firearm or ammunition determined by the Attorney General to be generally recognized as particularly suitable for sporting purposes and intended for the personal use of such member or club.

`(4) When established to the satisfaction of the Attorney General to be consistent with the provisions of this chapter, except for provisions relating to firearms subject to the prohibitions of section 582(p), and other applicable Federal and State laws and published ordinances, the Attorney General may authorize the transportation, shipment, receipt, or importation into the United States to the place of residence of any member of the United States Armed Forces who is on active duty outside the United States (or who has been on active duty outside the United States within the 60-day period immediately preceding the transportation, shipment, receipt, or importation), of any firearm or ammunition which is (A) determined by the Attorney General to be generally recognized as particularly suitable for sporting purposes, or determined by the Department of Defense to be a type of firearm normally classified as a war souvenir, and (B) intended for the personal use of such member.

`(5) For the purpose of paragraph (3), the term `United States' means each of the several States and the District of Columbia.

`(b) A licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector who is indicted for a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, may, notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, continue operation pursuant to his existing license (if prior to the expiration of the term of the existing license timely application is made for a new license) during the term of such indictment and until any conviction pursuant to the indictment becomes final.

`(c) A person who is prohibited from possessing, shipping, transporting, or receiving firearms or ammunition may make application to the Attorney General for relief from the disabilities imposed by Federal laws with respect to the acquisition, receipt, transfer, shipment, transportation, or possession of firearms, and the Attorney General may grant such relief if it is established to his satisfaction that the circumstances regarding the disability, and the applicant's record and reputation, are such that the applicant will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that the granting of the relief would not be contrary to the public interest. Any person whose application for relief from disabilities is denied by the Attorney General may file a petition with the United States district court for the district in which he resides for a judicial review of such denial. The court may in its discretion admit additional evidence where failure to do so would result in a miscarriage of justice. A licensed importer, licensed manufacturer, licensed dealer, or licensed collector conducting operations under this chapter, who makes application for relief from the disabilities incurred under this chapter, shall not be barred by such disability from further operations under his license pending final action on an application for relief filed pursuant to this section. Whenever the Attorney General grants relief to any person pursuant to this section he shall promptly publish in the Federal Register notice of such action, together with the reasons therefor.

`(d) The Attorney General shall authorize a firearm or ammunition to be imported or brought into the United States or any possession thereof if the firearm or ammunition--

`(1) is being imported or brought in for scientific or research purposes, or is for use in connection with competition or training pursuant to chapter 401 of title 10;

`(2) is an unserviceable firearm, other than a machinegun as defined in section 5845(b) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (not readily restorable to firing condition), imported or brought in as a curio or museum piece;

`(3) is of a type that does not fall within the definition of a firearm as defined in section 5845(a) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 and is generally recognized as particularly suitable for or readily adaptable to sporting purposes, excluding surplus military firearms, except in any case where the Attorney General has not authorized the importation of the firearm pursuant to this paragraph, it shall be unlawful to import any frame, receiver, or barrel of such firearm which would be prohibited if assembled; or

`(4) was previously taken out of the United States or a possession by the person who is bringing in the firearm or ammunition.

The Attorney General shall permit the conditional importation or bringing in of a firearm or ammunition for examination and testing in connection with the making of a determination as to whether the importation or bringing in of such firearm or ammunition will be allowed under this subsection.

`(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this title, the Attorney General shall authorize the importation of, by any licensed importer, the following:

`(1) All rifles and shotguns listed as curios or relics by the Attorney General pursuant to section 581(11), and

`(2) All handguns, listed as curios or relics by the Attorney General pursuant to section 581(11), provided that such handguns are generally recognized as particularly suitable for or readily adaptable to sporting purposes.

`(f) The Attorney General shall not authorize, under subsection (d), the importation of any firearm the importation of which is prohibited by section 582(p).

`Sec. 586. Remedy for erroneous denial of firearm

`Any person denied a firearm pursuant to subsection (s) or (t) of section 582--

`(1) due to the provision of erroneous information relating to the person by any State or political subdivision thereof, or by the national instant criminal background check system established under section 103 of the Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act; or

`(2) who was not prohibited from receipt of a firearm pursuant to subsection (g) or (n) of section 582,

may bring an action against the State or political subdivision responsible for providing the erroneous information, or responsible for denying the transfer, or against the United States, as the case may be, for an order directing that the erroneous information be corrected or that the transfer be approved, as the case may be. In any action under this section, the court, in its discretion, may allow the prevailing party a reasonable attorney's fee as part of the costs.

`Sec. 587. Rules and regulations

`(a) The Attorney General may prescribe only such rules and regulations as are necessary to carry out the provisions of this chapter, including--

`(1) regulations providing that a person licensed under this chapter, when dealing with another person so licensed, shall provide such other licensed person a certified copy of this license;

`(2) regulations providing for the issuance, at a reasonable cost, to a person licensed under this chapter, of certified copies of his license for use as provided under regulations issued under paragraph (1) of this subsection; and

`(3) regulations providing for effective receipt and secure storage of firearms relinquished by or seized from persons described in subsection (d)(8) or (g)(8) of section 582.

No such rule or regulation prescribed after the date of the enactment of the Firearms Owners' Protection Act may require that records required to be maintained under this chapter or any portion of the contents of such records, be recorded at or transferred to a facility owned, managed, or controlled by the United States or any State or any political subdivision thereof, nor that any system of registration of firearms, firearms owners, or firearms transactions or dispositions be established. Nothing in this section expands or restricts the Attorney General's authority to inquire into the disposition of any firearm in the course of a criminal investigation.

`(b) The Attorney General shall give not less than ninety days public notice, and shall afford interested parties opportunity for hearing, before prescribing such rules and regulations.

`(c) The Attorney General shall not prescribe rules or regulations that require purchasers of black powder under the exemption provided in section 615 to complete affidavits or forms attesting to that exemption.

`Sec. 588. Interstate transportation of firearms

`Notwithstanding any other provision of any law or any rule or regulation of a State or any political subdivision thereof, any person who is not otherwise prohibited by this chapter from transporting, shipping, or receiving a firearm shall be entitled to transport a firearm for any lawful purpose from any place where he may lawfully possess and carry such firearm to any other place where he may lawfully possess and carry such firearm if, during such transportation the firearm is unloaded, and neither the firearm nor any ammunition being transported is readily accessible or is directly accessible from the passenger compartment of such transporting vehicle: Provided, That in the case of a vehicle without a compartment separate from the driver's compartment the firearm or ammunition shall be contained in a locked container other than the glove compartment or console.

`Sec. 589. Carrying of concealed firearms by qualified law enforcement officers

`(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of the law of any State or any political subdivision thereof, an individual who is a qualified law enforcement officer and who is carrying the identification required by subsection (d) may carry a concealed firearm that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce, subject to subsection (b).

`(b) This section shall not be construed to supersede or limit the laws of any State that--

`(1) permit private persons or entities to prohibit or restrict the possession of concealed firearms on their property; or

`(2) prohibit or restrict the possession of firearms on any State or local government property, installation, building, base, or park.

`(c) As used in this section, the term `qualified law enforcement officer' means an employee of a governmental agency who--

`(1) is authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law, and has statutory powers of arrest;

`(2) is authorized by the agency to carry a firearm;

`(3) is not the subject of any disciplinary action by the agency;

`(4) meets standards, if any, established by the agency which require the employee to regularly qualify in the use of a firearm;

`(5) is not under the influence of alcohol or another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance; and

`(6) is not prohibited by Federal law from receiving a firearm.

`(d) The identification required by this subsection is the photographic identification issued by the governmental agency for which the individual is employed as a law enforcement officer.

`(e) As used in this section, the term `firearm' does not include--

`(1) any machinegun (as defined in section 5845 of the National Firearms Act);

`(2) any firearm silencer (as defined in section 581 of this title); and

`(3) any destructive device (as defined in section 581 of this title).

`Sec. 590. Carrying of concealed firearms by qualified retired law enforcement officers

`(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of the law of any State or any political subdivision thereof, an individual who is a qualified retired law enforcement officer and who is carrying the identification required by subsection (d) may carry a concealed firearm that has been shipped or transported in interstate or foreign commerce, subject to subsection (b).

`(b) This section shall not be construed to supersede or limit the laws of any State that--

`(1) permit private persons or entities to prohibit or restrict the possession of concealed firearms on their property; or

`(2) prohibit or restrict the possession of firearms on any State or local government property, installation, building, base, or park.

`(c) As used in this section, the term `qualified retired law enforcement officer' means an individual who--

`(1) retired in good standing from service with a public agency as a law enforcement officer, other than for reasons of mental instability;

`(2) before such retirement, was authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law, and had statutory powers of arrest;

`(3)(A) before such retirement, was regularly employed as a law enforcement officer for an aggregate of 15 years or more; or

`(B) retired from service with such agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of such service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined by such agency;

`(4) has a nonforfeitable right to benefits under the retirement plan of the agency;

`(5) during the most recent 12-month period, has met, at the expense of the individual, the State's standards for training and qualification for active law enforcement officers to carry firearms;

`(6) is not under the influence of alcohol or another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance; and

`(7) is not prohibited by Federal law from receiving a firearm.

`(d) The identification required by this subsection is--

`(1) a photographic identification issued by the agency from which the individual retired from service as a law enforcement officer that indicates that the individual has, not less recently than one year before the date the individual is carrying the concealed firearm, been tested or otherwise found by the agency to meet the standards established by the agency for training and qualification for active law enforcement officers to carry a firearm of the same type as the concealed firearm; or

`(2)(A) a photographic identification issued by the agency from which the individual retired from service as a law enforcement officer; and

`(B) a certification issued by the State in which the individual resides that indicates that the individual has, not less recently than one year before the date the individual is carrying the concealed firearm, been tested or otherwise found by the State to meet the standards established by the State for training and qualification for active law enforcement officers to carry a firearm of the same type as the concealed firearm.

`(e) As used in this section, the term `firearm' does not include--

`(1) any machinegun (as defined in section 5845 of the National Firearms Act);

`(2) any firearm silencer (as defined in section 581 of this title); and

`(3) a destructive device (as defined in section 581 of this title).

`Sec. 591. Effect on State law

`No provision of this subchapter shall be construed as indicating an intent on the part of the Congress to occupy the field in which such provision operates to the exclusion of the law of any State on the same subject matter, unless there is a direct and positive conflict between such provision and the law of the State so that the two cannot be reconciled or consistently stand together.

`Sec. 592. Use of restricted ammunition

`(a)(1) Whoever, during and in relation to the commission of a crime of violence or drug trafficking crime (including a crime of violence or drug trafficking crime which provides for an enhanced punishment if committed by the use of a deadly or dangerous weapon or device) for which he may be prosecuted in a court of the United States, uses or carries a firearm and is in possession of armor piercing ammunition capable of being fired in that firearm, shall, in addition to the punishment provided for the commission of such crime of violence or drug trafficking crime be sentenced to a term of imprisonment for not less than five years.

`(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the court shall not suspend the sentence of any person convicted of a violation of this section, nor place the person on probation, nor shall the terms of imprisonment run concurrently with any other terms of imprisonment, including that imposed for the crime in which the armor piercing ammunition was used or possessed.

`Sec. 593. Possession of firearms and dangerous weapons in Federal facilities

`(a) Except as provided in subsection (d), whoever knowingly possesses or causes to be present a firearm or other dangerous weapon in a Federal facility (other than a Federal court facility), or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 1 year.

`(b) Whoever, with intent that a firearm or other dangerous weapon be used in the commission of a crime, knowingly possesses or causes to be present such firearm or dangerous weapon in a Federal facility, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 5 years.

`(c) A person who kills any person in the course of a violation of subsection (a) or (b), or in the course of an attack on a Federal facility involving the use of a firearm or other dangerous weapon, or attempts or conspires to do such an act, shall be punished as provided in subchapter A of chapter 10.

`(d) Subsection (a) shall not apply to--

`(1) the lawful performance of official duties by an officer, agent, or employee of the United States, a State, or a political subdivision thereof, who is authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of any violation of law;

`(2) the possession of a firearm or other dangerous weapon by a Federal official or a member of the Armed Forces if such possession is authorized by law; or

`(3) the lawful carrying of firearms or other dangerous weapons in a Federal facility incident to hunting or other lawful purposes.

`(e)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), whoever knowingly possesses or causes to be present a firearm in a Federal court facility, or attempts to do so, shall be imprisoned not more than 2 years.

`(2) Paragraph (1) shall not apply to conduct which is described in paragraph (1) or (2) of subsection (d).

`(f) Nothing in this section limits the power of a court of the United States to punish for contempt or to promulgate rules or orders regulating, restricting, or prohibiting the possession of weapons within any building housing such court or any of its proceedings, or upon any grounds appurtenant to such building.

`(g) As used in this section:

`(1) The term `Federal facility' means a building or part thereof owned or leased by the Federal Government, where Federal employees are regularly present for the purpose of performing their official duties.

`(2) The term `dangerous weapon' means a weapon, device, instrument, material, or substance, animate or inanimate, that is used for, or is readily capable of, causing death or serious bodily injury, except that such term does not include a pocket knife with a blade of less than 2 1/2 inches in length.

`(3) The term `Federal court facility' means the courtroom, judges' chambers, witness rooms, jury deliberation rooms, attorney conference rooms, prisoner holding cells, offices of the court clerks, the United States attorney, and the United States marshal, probation and parole offices, and adjoining corridors of any court of the United States.

`(h) Notice of the provisions of subsections (a) and (b) shall be posted conspicuously at each public entrance to each Federal facility, and notice of subsection (e) shall be posted conspicuously at each public entrance to each Federal court facility, and no person shall be convicted of an offense under subsection (a) or (e) with respect to a Federal facility if such notice is not so posted at such facility, unless such person had actual notice of subsection (a) or (e), as the case may be.

`Sec. 594. Prohibition on purchase, ownership, or possession of body armor by violent felons

`(a) In General- Except as provided in subsection (b), it shall be unlawful for a person to purchase, own, or possess body armor, if that person has been convicted of a felony that is--

`(1) a crime of violence; or

`(2) an offense under State law that would constitute a crime of violence under paragraph (1) if it occurred within the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States.

`(b) Affirmative Defense-

`(1) In general- It shall be an affirmative defense under this section that--

`(A) the defendant obtained prior written certification from his or her employer that the defendant's purchase, use, or possession of body armor was necessary for the safe performance of lawful business activity; and

`(B) the use and possession by the defendant were limited to the course of such performance.

`(2) Employer- In this subsection, the term `employer' means any other individual employed by the defendant's business that supervises defendant's activity. If that defendant has no supervisor, prior written certification is acceptable from any other employee of the business.

`SUBCHAPTER C--EXPLOSIVES

`Sec.

`601. Prohibited transactions involving nuclear materials.

`Sec. 601. Prohibited transactions involving nuclear materials

`(a) Whoever, if one of the circumstances described in subsection (c) of this section occurs--

`(1) without lawful authority, intentionally receives, possesses, uses, transfers, alters, disposes of, or disperses any nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material and--

`(A) thereby knowingly causes the death of or serious bodily injury to any person or substantial damage to property or to the environment; or

`(B) circumstances exist, or have been represented to the defendant to exist, that are likely to cause the death or serious bodily injury to any person, or substantial damage to property or to the environment;

`(2) with intent to deprive another of nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material, knowingly--

`(A) takes and carries away nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material of another without authority;

`(B) makes an unauthorized use, disposition, or transfer, of nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material belonging to another; or

`(C) uses fraud and thereby obtains nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material belonging to another;

`(3) knowingly--

`(A) uses force; or

`(B) threatens or places another in fear that any person other than the actor will imminently be subject to bodily injury;

and thereby takes nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material belonging to another from the person or presence of any other;

`(4) intentionally intimidates any person and thereby obtains nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material belonging to another;

`(5) with intent to compel any person, international organization, or governmental entity to do or refrain from doing any act, knowingly threatens to engage in conduct described in paragraph (2)(A) or (3) of this subsection;

`(6) knowingly threatens to use nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material to cause death or serious bodily injury to any person or substantial damage to property or to the environment under circumstances in which the threat may reasonably be understood as an expression of serious purposes;

`(7) attempts to commit an offense under paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (4) of this subsection; or

`(8) is a party to a conspiracy of two or more persons to commit an offense under paragraph (1), (2), (3), or (4) of this subsection, if any of the parties intentionally engages in any conduct in furtherance of such offense;

shall be punished as provided in subsection (b) of this section.

`(b) The punishment for an offense under--

`(1) paragraphs (1) through (7) of subsection (a) of this section is--

`(A) a fine under this title; and

`(B) imprisonment--

`(i) for any term of years or for life (I) if, while committing the offense, the offender knowingly causes the death of any person; or (II) if, while committing an offense under paragraph (1) or (3) of subsection (a) of this section, the offender, under circumstances manifesting extreme indifference to the life of an individual, knowingly engages in any conduct and thereby recklessly causes the death of or serious bodily injury to any person; and

`(ii) for not more than 20 years in any other case; and

`(2) paragraph (8) of subsection (a) of this section is--

`(A) a fine under this title; and

`(B) imprisonment--

`(i) for not more than 20 years if the offense which is the object of the conspiracy is punishable under paragraph (1)(B)(i); and

`(ii) for not more than 10 years in any other case.

`(c) The circumstances referred to in subsection (a) of this section are that--

`(1) the offense is committed in the United States or the special maritime and territorial jurisdiction of the United States, or the special aircraft jurisdiction of the United States (as defined in section 46501 of title 49);

`(2) an offender or a victim is--

`(A) a national of the United States; or

`(B) a United States corporation or other legal entity;

`(3) after the conduct required for the offense occurs the defendant is found in the United States, even if the conduct required for the offense occurs outside the United States;

`(4) the conduct required for the offense occurs with respect to the carriage of a consignment of nuclear material or nuclear byproduct material for peaceful purposes by any means of transportation intended to go beyond the territory of the state where the shipment originates beginning with the departure from a facility of the shipper in that state and ending with the arrival at a facility of the receiver within the state of ultimate destination and either of such states is the United States; or

`(5) either--

`(A) the governmental entity under subsection (a)(5) is the United States; or

`(B) the threat under subsection (a)(6) is directed at the United States.

`(d) The Attorney General may request assistance from the Secretary of Defense under chapter 18 of title 10 in the enforcement of this section and the Secretary of Defense may provide such assistance in accordance with chapter 18 of title 10, except that the Secretary of Defense may provide such assistance through any Department of Defense personnel.

`(e)(1) The Attorney General may also request assistance from the Secretary of Defense under this subsection in the enforcement of this section. Notwithstanding section 1385 of this title, the Secretary of Defense may, in accordance with other applicable law, provide such assistance to the Attorney General if--

`(A) an emergency situation exists (as jointly determined by the Attorney General and the Secretary of Defense in their discretion); and

`(B) the provision of such assistance will not adversely affect the military preparedness of the United States (as determined by the Secretary of Defense in such Secretary's discretion).

`(2) As used in this subsection, the term `emergency situation' means a circumstance--

`(A) that poses a serious threat to the interests of the United States; and

`(B) in which--

`(i) enforcement of the law would be seriously impaired if the assistance were not provided; and

`(ii) civilian law enforcement personnel are not capable of enforcing the law.

`(3) Assistance under this section may include--

`(A) use of personnel of the Department of Defense to arrest persons and conduct searches and seizures with respect to violations of this section; and

`(B) such other activity as is incidental to the enforcement of this section, or to the protection of persons or property from conduct that violates this section.

`(4) The Secretary of Defense may require reimbursement as a condition of assistance under this section.

`(5) The Attorney General may delegate the Attorney General's function under this subsection only to a Deputy, Associate, or Assistant Attorney General.

`(f) As used in this section--

`(1) the term `nuclear material' means material containing any--

`(A) plutonium;

`(B) uranium not in the form of ore or ore residue that contains the mixture of isotopes as occurring in nature;

`(C) enriched uranium, defined as uranium that contains the isotope 233 or 235 or both in such amount that the abundance ratio of the sum of those isotopes to the isotope 238 is greater than the ratio of the isotope 235 to the isotope 238 occurring in nature; or

`(D) uranium 233;

`(2) the term `nuclear byproduct material' means any material containing any radioactive isotope created through an irradiation process in the operation of a nuclear reactor or accelerator;

`(3) the term `international organization' means a public international organization designated as such pursuant to section 1 of the International Organizations Immunities Act (22 U.S.C. 288) or a public organization created pursuant to treaty or other agreement under international law as an instrument through or by which two or more foreign governments engage in some aspect of their conduct of international affairs; and

`(4) the term `United States corporation or other legal entity' means any corporation or other entity organized under the laws of the United States or any State, Commonwealth, territory, possess